Dear Dr. Ord,
I found your essay extremely interesting and will return to it for a second read to better understand the concepts you presented. Upon the first reading, I have the impression that there may be certain similarities in our ideas at which we may have arrived from completely different perspectives.
On the apparent disconnect between QM and the two postulates of SR, have you considered the possibility that they may only seem disconnected because we have not yet generally recognized certain inherent connections without even considering the novel ideas you propose?
I'd like to point out what I see as a connection, namely the fact that objects traveling at the speed of light 'observe' in their frames a zero duration of existence in spacetime, since a zero proper time between coming into existence and going out of existence (e.g. emission and absorption) implies exactly that. Given that naively a zero duration of existence would seem to imply non-existence, yet that it is incontrovertible that objects traveling at the speed of light do exist, a way to reconcile this apparent paradox is to posit that they do not exist "in" spacetime, but "outside" (4 years ago, I turned this argument around to present a derivation of the speed of light postulate based on this idea, see http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/329.)
Now, the question naturally becomes, if such objects do not exist in spacetime then where do they exist? I did not answer this in my original essay but in subsequent work, I attempted to show that if objects exist in a 2+! analog of spacetime then one may assume that the manifestation of their worldlines to spacetime observers is in terms of a superposition of all the worldlines of the spacetime objects into which they can emerge (a spacetime event currently identified as "wave function collapse"). This already takes us halfway to the path integral.
The other part, which is more directly related to your paper, is that a postulated symmetry indirectly provides a means to compare the passage of time along the worldline in the 2+1 analog (which I prefer to call areatime)with the passage of time along each worldline that is part of the object's spacetime manifestation can be decomposed into two complex conjugate phase factors of the form
[math]e^{\tau/\tau_A}[/math]
where tau is the proper time associated with the spacetime worldline manifestation and tau_A is the proper time associated with the object in areatime. There are two aspects of this idea which seem directly related to what you present in your paper:
1) the phase factors effectively function as "clocks"
2) at least for a single free particle, the term that needs to be substituted for tau_A to obtain the correct relativistic phase factor of the Lagrangian formulation is its inverse Compton frequency multiplied by the imaginary unit.
I normally don't talk about my ideas at length in other people's threads, I just wanted to show why I think that there may be similarities between our ideas. However, I will need to re-read your paper in some more depth to be able to better pinpoint the similarities.
Should you be interested to find out more about, my last fqxi essay talked in some depth about the phase factor (http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/954) and there is also a conference talk that puts it all together http://youtu.be/GurBISsM308.
My current essay may be less related to your topic, as it concerns the relationship between QM and GR, but I would certainly appreciate if you did take a look (http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/1431).
All the best,
Armin