[deleted]
Hi Tom,
You wrote:
"Hi Frederico,
You write, "Try to read the equation F=ma. In the context of classical mechanics you would say the total force equals to the product of the mass and the acceleration. But out of context, or better, without any interpretation, you cannot say it."
If you mean only that I have to expand the shorthand symbols to natural language, such that I should write, "Force equals mass times acceleration," then I don't really think that constitutes either context or interpretation. The symbols, after all, mean the same things whether one's native language is Portuguese or English, or any other. Mathematical symbols are universal; we learn this "alphabet" of symbols in learning the artificial language of math, yet the symbols are themselves derived from natural language.
Suppose you mean, though, that to understand how to interpret the way in which these symbols correspond to personal experience, such that we are assured the symbols are indeed universal -- we resort to comparing the symbols to objects, exactly the way one learns natural language. "Mass" one can understand as identical to weight, by balance measurement. "Acceleration" is exactly why Newton invented the calculus, to explain acceleration as the rate of change of the rate of change -- can this be explained by direct comparison to an object? -- yes, if one sees the difference between uniform motion described by a straight line, and acceleration described by a curved line, which is the visual basis of the calculus. Then corresponding experience informs one that a hammer head "weighs" more when accelerated toward the nail head, than when resting on it uniformly. We call that increase of mass-energy by the name "force." "
Tom, quoting you: "If you mean only that I have to expand the shorthand symbols to natural language, such that I should write, "Force equals mass times acceleration," then I don't really think that constitutes either context or interpretation."
Your statement appears to me to be dependent upon interpretation. The equation f=ma before interpretation says only that 'something' equals 'what' times acceleration.
Quoting you: " "Mass" one can understand as identical to weight, by balance measurement. "Acceleration" is exactly why Newton invented the calculus, to explain acceleration as the rate of change of the rate of change -- can this be explained by direct comparison to an object? -- yes, if one sees the difference between uniform motion described by a straight line, and acceleration described by a curved line, which is the visual basis of the calculus. Then corresponding experience informs one that a hammer head "weighs" more when accelerated toward the nail head, than when resting on it uniformly. We call that increase of mass-energy by the name "force." "
In other words the 'what' from my statement above is identical to a different 'what'? What is either 'what' without interpretation?
Acceleration has no need for interpretation.
Quoting you: "We call that increase of mass-energy by the name "force." "
In other words: We call that increase in 'what_1' dash 'what_2' by the name 'something'. Or perhaps you are saying that the results of interpretation can be used to explain a 'something' without needing to interpret that 'something'? :)
Can you please say more about your view of the meanings of 'not interpreting' and 'interpreting'?
James