Dear Marcoen,

You defended your point very well, using the artillery of critical thinking, and I agree that we can be certain about very little. I can't name one thing about we can have absolute certainty. The Higgs boson is not singular in this respect. One can't be sure that the sun will rise tomorrow, or that it even raised this morning. Or even that there is a sun! When we look on the window, we assume that the world will be there, but what makes us so sure? We can never have absolute certainty. So I must say that I agree with you, and not only in the case of the Higgs boson. How people deal with this uncertainty? They had to learn to deal with it, because there are not few the situations when a fast decision, even wrong, is better than indecision. While we were living in the wilderness, often running or attacking were better options than carefully analyzing what to do. People learned to justify their choices, so that they can run or attack without hesitating. Very often people feel very certain about their opinions in politics, religion, science, UFOs, etc., and maybe the explanation is that we can't do anything if we doubt of each of our steps, so we learned to believe in our choices. Toddlers can't learn to walk if they wait to gain certainty that at the next step they will not fall, so believing is doing.

So people learned to make bets, and justify them, for the peace of their souls. Anything is a bet, and the explanations around it are justifications of the choices made while betting. We bet that the Sun will rise tomorrow. We even bet that the universe will still exist. We bet, so that we find a reason to earn our food for tomorrow, to send the children to school, to have health insurance etc. And if we will see the sun rising, as you pointed out, we merely observe the photons. Or are we even sure that we observe photons?

Science is full of bets too, and it is in the spirit of science to acknowledge that and never forget it.

The existence of the Higgs boson is just a bet, and the odds that a particle with properties that can be assigned to Higgs was find are given by the 5 sigma. The odds are probably much greater, if we remember that the Standard Model, which needs the Higgs boson, explains so many phenomena, and makes prediction with so big accuracy. But, there is no absolute certainty.

Best regards,

Cristi Stoica

    • [deleted]

    Marcoen,

    "things like tables, bears, needles, or any other macroscopic object subjectable to contact forces can be observed directly."

    My point was that even direct observation is circumscribed by the limitation of the 5 senses themselves. If we claim to know anything in itself, then we cannot discover anything more about it....since we allegedly know it intrinsically.

    "Particles get their mass - at least according to the Standard Model - by interaction with the Higgs field. The Higgs boson is a wave in the Higgs field.'

    - The Higgs boson or Higgs particle is an elementary particle - not a wave - of mass ~125 Gev.

    - How can particles be particles when they move through a Higgs field before acquiring mass... that is, how can they be particles without mass?

    - What experiment has observed the acquisition of mass by a massless particle moving in an Higgs field?

    - How does Higgs mass creation differ from pair creation by convergent gamma rays?

      • [deleted]

      Cristi

      Be careful to differentiate between the practical and the metaphysical when considering the difficulties of knowing. Contrary to Tom's view, objective knowledge is the equivalent of reality, for us. And that has nothing to do with perception/thinking, which has no affect on the physical circumstance.

      Something exists independently of the mechanisms whereby we are aware of it. But we can only have knowledge of it, and by virtue of a physical process. So, while we must assume that there is the possibility of an alternative, this is irrelevant, because we cannot know it. We can know what it is possible for us to know, ie there is some definitive body of knowledge, but there are a number of practical difficulties in doing this. We will know, in any given situation, that we have 'got it right' by default, that is, after a sufficient duration, no new knowledge arises, despite efforts to discover such. At which point we can then deem that knowledge to be the equivalent of our reality.

      Paul

      Cristinel,

      Thanks for commenting on my essay.

      It is not the case that there are no things about which we cannot be certain. Descartes' "cogito ergo sum" is as far as I know undisputed: for every individual it is an absolute certainty that he exists. But that's also where the consensus ends. So indeed there is very little about which we are 100% sure.

      As I explained in an earlier thread above, the "5-sigma" is a concept from mathematical statistics (hypothesis testing). In the current context this means that the probability that the peaks in the mass spectra at 125.3 ± 0.6 GeV are not due to random fluctuations is approximately 99.99999%. Contrary to what you might think, this does absolutely not translate to the statement that there is a 99.99999% probability that the Higgs boson. And it doesn't matter which arguments one offers: it is not going to happen.

      You mentioned that the probability that the Higgs boson exists is even higher because the Standard Model makes so many accurate predictions. But the Standard Model isn't all that; e.g. complexity of the theory and the corresponding calculations is not a guarantee for scientific quality. According to Teller, the majority of top physicists holds that renormalization is a way of covering our ignorance of how present false theories approximate a correct, completely finite theory. The Standard Model has also been heavily criticized by the founders of quantum theory, Dirac and Heisenberg. Their criticism hasn't been answered up untill today. You're a PhD student, so why don't you print a copy of Heisenberg's "The nature of elementary particles", Physics Today, 1976(3), pp. 32-39, and ask your supervisor what he thinks about it? You might get an interesting discussion about the foundations of quantum theory.

      But of course I agree with you that at present, the Standard Model is the best explanation available for observations involving the electromagnetic, strong and weak interactions.

      Best regards,

      Marcoen

      Robert,

      I now see what you meant in your earlier post. I completely agree with you that sensory observation has its limitations. I side with Kant: by sensory observation we cannot possibly get to know what the thing-in-itself is. Locke made a distinction between primary and secondary properties: respectively, these are observable properties that are also properties of the thing-in-itself, and properties that are observable but that are not present in the thing-in-itself (like color). So from observation we get to know observable properties of a thing, but then we don't know whether these are primary or secondary, nor do we know from observation what the substance is that is the carrier of the properties.

      If you want to be very strict about the language, then there are no "particles" or "waves" in quantum physics, only quanta. "Particles" and "waves" are concepts from classical theory. For quanta one can talk about particle-wave duality, i.e. sometimes it can be seen as a particle, sometimes as a wave. The Higgs boson is an excitation of the Higgs field. There is no experiment that has established that mass-having particles have acquired their mass by moving in the Higgs field. Some of your questions are quite philosophical; I have no answer. Maybe you should ask them to an expert in quantum physics; it would be interesting to see what he answers.

      Best regards,

      Marcoen

      • [deleted]

      Marcoen

      "I side with Kant: by sensory observation we cannot possibly get to know what the thing-in-itself is"

      Yes we can. Because if we know how light works we can then reverse engineer what is received and discern what occurred which the light represents.

      One, especially philosophers, might still want to argue that this is a function of light. To which you point out that science deals with the real world as it is manifest to us.

      Paul

      Paul

      • [deleted]

      Marcoen

      "for every individual it is an absolute certainty that he exists. But that's also where the consensus ends"

      Really? So what is the difference between being aware of oneself and being aware of the rest of physical existence?

      Paul

      Paul,

      See Descartes' famous reasoning in his Meditations on First Principles: the fact that you are aware of an outside world doesn't necessarily mean that the objects of your sensory experience and imagination have an existence outside you. I am not going to repeat the entire argument hic et nunc, but in essence Descartes argued that there is no guarantee that a perceived phenomenon corresponds to anything "real".

      Regards,

      Marcoen

      Hi Paul,

      I agree with you that IF we know how it all works, THEN we can reverse engineer an observation. But the problem is with the antecedent: we don't know how it all works, and Kant argued that we cannot ever get to know it.

      You wrote that science deals with the real world, but note that even about that there is no consensus. Here is a quote from the quantum physicist Henry Stapp: "as every physicist knows, or is supposed to have been taught, [quantum] physics does not deal with physical reality. [Quantum] physics deals with mathematically describable patterns in our observations. It is only these patterns in our observation that can be tested empirically."

      Best regards,

      Marcoen

      • [deleted]

      The whole strategy of understanding the laws of nature solely using mathematics is running out of steam. Statistically, there is supposed to be a higgs particle that gives mass to weak force particles. Whatever statistical ghost the higgs might be, it deserves the prize as being the most useless discovery in physics. The Higgs boson and Higgs field seem to have nothing to do with inertia, gravity or speed of light/relativity/time dilation.

      I am surprised that nobody in the science community has said: what mysterious phenomenon is this special relativity that particles are not allowed to pass each other at speeds exceeding c. What is the "it" that demands this "bit", this relativistic calculation of v^2/c^2? It is, as if by some invisible magic link that time dilation and length contraction are forced to occur between particles that pass each other at relativistic speeds.

      What is this "it" that restricts particles to the speed of light, and causes funny time dilation (time progression effects)? Is this "it" some kind of mechanism for time itself? Can we figure out how to speed up and slow down the time progression of regions of space the same way we can speed up and slow down computer processors by adjusting the clock speed. By discovering the mechanisms of time dilation and relativity, can we create TIME DILATION FIELDS? With time dilation fields, can we hijack mechanisms of gravity?

      You can chase Higgs statistical ghosts if you like, but I guarantee it's going to convince everyone that homo sapients won't discover the warp drive.

      • [deleted]

      Marcoen: you have a mistaken view about what it is to observe something. You suppose that to observe something we have to observe it *directly* (you say we haven't observed the Higgs boson because we've only observed its decays). But this is absurd. To observe something's decays to is observe *its* decays -- that is, it is to observe the thing *indirectly* by virtue of its effects.

      A simple example to illustrate: suppose I see my wife in a mirror. Have I seen her? Yes. But not *directly*, only by the effects of light bouncing off the mirror. By a similar token, if our theory states that a Higgs Boson will have effects X, Y, and Z but *not* A, B, and C, and then we observe those very things, we have observed the thing *by* its effects.

      You seem to think that this commits a logical fallacy. That if a theory T says p-->q and we observe q, it is wrong to infer p. In one sense you're right, in another sense you're wrong. There are always an infinite number of different theories that can imply the same observations. So, we might distinguish the Higgs Boson theory from the Schmiggs boson theory from the Schliggs boson theory...all of which imply the observations made at the LHC, the only difference is that the Schmiggs boson theory implies that we will observe garden gnomes if we travel to alpha centauri and the Schliggs boson theory implies that we will observe beer spontaneously combust on the planet Gliese. *All* of these theories are consistent with the LHC observations...but does this mean we shouldn't think the Higgs theory is more likely to be true than the others? Of course not.

      The reason why the Higgs theory is the *best* theory -- and one that counts as "confirmed" -- is because, is science, confirmation is a matter of *matching* the implications of our simplest, most powerful theories with observation. This is, as you note, not correct *logically*, but then again science isn't *deductive* in nature; it is *inductive* and *abductive*. And the logic of induction and abduction is quite different. It is not fallacious to assume p in the case of p-->q and q is observed as an *abductive* matter because, in that case, the theory T might be the *best* explanation of why q was observed.

      Anyway, that's where you've gone wrong. You've supposed that observation and confirmation must be deductive in nature when that's just not how science works.

        • [deleted]

        Boy, for a guy who thinks the universe is an analog of 'Halo', you sure have a lot of opinions.

        • [deleted]

        Marcoen

        You are confusing two issues. The point is we can potentially know, but it is, practically, very difficult, if not impossible in some areas. The argument that we can never know, is spurious, because that is stated in respect of the fact that there may alternatives. But these are possibilities which we cannot know, so whilst the statement is true, it is irrelevant and misleading. Science deals with what we can potentially know, this is, for us, physical existence.

        Paul

        • [deleted]

        Marcoen

        "the fact that you are aware of an outside world doesn't necessarily mean that the objects of your sensory experience and imagination have an existence outside you"

        As per the post below which I wrote first, you (and indeed most philosophers) are confusing physical existence as knowable to us, with the logic that there might be an alternative. This is irrelevant, we cannot know it. Science is concerned with the knowable, and establishing that objectively, albeit we have to presume it might just be one possibility. And within existence as knowable to us, it most definitely occurs independently of us. Us there really being the awareness function. Because, as per my point, we are aware of ourselves as a physical entity in the same way that we are aware of anything else.

        Paul

        Paul,

        I'm not confusing anything. Like you, I'm a realist, so I agree with you that there is an outside world.

        The quote is from Descartes: he doesn't agree with you. Even stronger is the Berkelian idealism: while Descartes stated that it is not sure that there is an outside world corresponding to perceived images of it, Berkely flat out denied the existence of an outside world. So according to Berkely, all objects exist only in our imagination.

        Best regards,

        Marcoen

        Paul,

        I'm not confusing anything.

        Kant didn't state his argument (why we cannot know the physical world in itself) with respect to the fact that there may be alternatives. Knowledge of the (fundamental principles of the) world as it is in itself, apart from how it is observed, is synthetic a priori knowledge (Kant's terminology). Kant's work argues in great detail why it is not possible to attain such knowledge based on observation and reason. This work has caused a monumental shift in human thinking: I wouldn't call it irrelevant and misleading.

        Your general view on science ("science deals with ..."), is certainly shared by others as well. I merely wanted you to say that there is no consensus: there are yet others who do not agree with you.

        Best regards,

        Marcoen

        • [deleted]

        Paul wrote, " ... if we know how light works we can then reverse engineer what is received and discern what occurred which the light represents."

        In fact, we do know how light works. That does not imply that we know what light "is" other than the empirical fact that it is identical to electromagnetic radiation. The further fact that *all* communication among *all* particles and bodies is limited to the speed of light compounds our ignorance of "what light represents" because in principle it represents *everything* we know about the world. Reverse engineering is therefore impossible in the case of a world that gives no indication -- either in theory or empirical observation -- of being engineered in the first place.

        Tom

        Marcus,

        Thanks for commenting on my essay.

        However, you have a mistaken view about what it is to observe something. You suppose that to observe something we merely have to observe the thing *indirectly* by virtue of its effects. That is absurd. If some crackpot claims that unicorns exist because he has seen an imprint of a hoof in the woods, do you believe him? Of course not. Yet when the top brass in physics claims that the Higgs bosons exist because they have seen traces of it, everybody is in shock and awe. But the emperor has no clothes on. The conclusion "X exists" cannot be drawn from the premises "if X exists, then trace T will be observed" and "trace T has been observed". It's a fallacy when a crackpot does it, it's a fallacy when a sophomore student does it, and it's a fallacy when the top brass in physics does it. Period.

        N.B. Another fallacy is circular reasoning. You don't get so say: these are traces of a Higgs boson, so therefore the Higgs boson exists. Then you are assuming what has to be proven!

        Futhermore, if by underdetermination of theory we have theories T, T' and T" that are consistent with experiment, then you simply don't get to say that T is more likely than T' or T". You gave two ridiculous examples of T' and T", but if you have this situation in reality (so three well-defined theories T, T' and T" in agreement with experiment) then theory choice depends largely on social factors. If you then believe in the theory T, then you will simply have to live with the situation that others will believe in another theory T' or T", while there is no instrument - at that moment! - to decide between the theories. In my PhD thesis I mentioned a transition from modern physics to postmodernism in physics: that is precisely this situation.

        Last but not least, you seem to confuse the notions "discovery" and "explanation". Suppose that from theory T we can deduce the premise "if X exists, then trace T will be observed", and suppose that from experimental results we can deduce the premise "trace T has been observed". Then you don't get to claim that you have discovered X, that is, that you have proven that X exists. However, you do get to claim that theory T is an explanation of the results; and if there is no other theory T' that makes the same quantitative prediction then you even get to say that T is the best explanation avalable. Don't get me wrong: this is the situation at hand with the Higgs boson. Of course this is an additional justification for believing in the Standard Model and the Higgs boson. So you can say that you believe in P (you used the word "assume" but "believe" fits better in the language of philosophy of science) if Q has been observed and P --> Q follows from theory. But note that this also holds for the crackpot and his unicorn. The point here is that the statement "the Higgs boson is the best explanation available" and the statement "the Higgs boson has been discovered" are two distinct conclusions. Saying that it is the same is not how science works: only by a degradation of the traditional standard of scientific quality we can say that it lies within the realm of scientific discourse to identity these statements with another. I consider it malpractice.

        By the way, as I remarked in an earlier post, the member of the CMS collaboration who reviewed my criticism for publication in Physics Letters B said that the criticism is correct but that physicists need no reminder of that. I doubt that: I think physicists do need a reminder. Hence my essay.

        Best regards,

        Marcoen

        • [deleted]

        Marcoen

        I am lost, and apologies if I am assuming you are saying something you are not. However, given previous posts, but without tracking them down....So can you confirm that you agree:

        1 Physical existence is what we must presume is possibly only one form of existence, but it is what is potentially knowable to us, which is the function of a physical process. An alternative is only a logical possibility, and since we cannot know it, it is irrelevant. The point being that arguments which assert we can 'never know', etc in the context of a possible alternative are spurious. Because what is actually being said is that we cannot know what we cannot know, a useless statement of the blindingly obvious. Or worse still, it is asserting what can only be beliefs. But of course, if the right words are used these assertions can appear the product of 'deep thinking'/quasi scientific.

        2 Physical existence is not affected by any form of sensing (particularly sight), or measurement. It is independent of the mechanisms which enable sentient organisms to be aware of it.

        Paul

        • [deleted]

        Marcoen

        With respect to the physical existence we can investigate, knowledge of it is all we have. So Kant, as others, is not differentiating what can be known, from another possible alternative, which is irrelevant, because it cannot be known. The ultimate state we can achieve is knowledge, which after exhaustive testing, is verified. At that point we can deem it to be the equivalent of physical existence. We never have some form of 'direct access' to existence, and possible alternatives thereto.

        So again, as stated above, pointing out that we cannot know what we cannot know, is not exactly earth shattering. But that is not really what they meant.

        Paul