To complete my criticism, in reply to the last 2 pages of the essay, while I replied to the previous pages earlier (see my previous replies above): why I see this essay a rather laughable illusion of argument for naturalism, not worth being taken seriously by any scientifically educated person, at the antipodes of the above expressed beliefs by some who lazily enjoy the claim that arguments for naturalism are given, as, just like in religious apologetics, they love to dream in the existence of arguments to validate their belief, but are too lazy or incompetent to think logically about which argument can be actually valid. They dream it would be able to convince some platonists ? Of course it cannot. It can only convince those who are already convinced.
"There are four of these core concepts: number, geometry, algebra and logic."
This description looks as if there was nothing more interesting in the maths of theoretical physics, than school-level mathematics. As if the school-level concepts already gave the essence of all the main mathematical ideas needed in physics. They don't. Very far from it. Just the fact that some of the high-level maths used in theoretical physics (tensors, spinors) can be called "algebra", and that gauge theories can be called "geometry", does not mean that they are as boring as school math. And Fourier transforms, which are essential to quantum physics, clearly do not enter these school-level categories.
Finally, this "argument" is here to be praised and high rated by the public, for the precise reason I gave in my review of this contest: "Obscurantism = Deny the amazing efficiency of mathematics observed in physics; stay ignorant about it. Such people usually hate mathematics because they cannot understand it, so they need pseudo-arguments to feel proud of their ignorance."
This way of pretending that theoretical physics is just as boring and conceptually down-to-earth as school math, so as to make ignorant people feel proud and sufficient of the boring little school math which is all they know, can be a good way to be popular indeed. But it is just an expression of ignorance (may it be true ignorance or pretense of it, doing as if the wonderful stuff of theoretical physics was not there). To see how wrong is this view, see the section "Arguments for Mathematical Platonism" of my review, and the 4 essays I referenced there, which develop the observation of how amazing is the mathematical understanding of physics.
Now the last page : "we still have to explain why mathematics is so effective in physics. It will be sufficient to..." (just blindly pretend that there is nothing remarkable about the effectiveness of maths in physics). Well, just like so many other naturalist essays, the main idea there is to believe that the connection between maths and physics is best explained by pretending that it does not exist, i.e. that there is nothing remarkable about it, that it is nothing else than an illusory impression from what would just be the remarkable efficiency of the naturally evolved human brain to understand mathematics, together with the fact that it should be possible to mathematically analyze anything that happens because finding mathematical structures in anything is what the scientific activity is about, and the reader is not supposed to have any imagination to figure out anything else than this which the remarkable connection between maths and physics might be about. Well, if that was all what the connection between maths and physics was about, why would anyone have come to declare amazement at this connection in the first place ? It would have been simply stupid to do so.
Now the closing "examples". When it was first announced on page 1 that "There indeed may be properties enjoyed by physical reality which have no counterpart in mathematics. I will mention two below", I expected (not paying attention to the restrictive "may be") that the examples would come to make a point showing that such things actually exist, giving good reasons to see physical reality and maths as different. I expected these to be scientifically well-founded, such as reports of scientifically well-established facts. I had one particular example in mind, which I expected to be given in the list : the wave-function collapse, that is found physically real but does not admit any coherent mathematical description.
But it turns out that the given 2 examples of differences between mathematical and physical reality are very disappointing. They are not reports of any scientifically well-established facts. They are only examples of the author's fanciful assumptions introduced earlier in the essay. And not only this, but they are purely metaphysical assumptions, where by "metaphysical" I mean what logical positivism (which is the usually good scientific methodology) dismisses as senseless : it is neither logically well-structured, nor intended as a reference to any possible observational verification.
In reply to the first example "In the real universe it is always some present moment, which is one of a succession of moments. Properties off mathematical objects, once evoked, are true independent of time.": in the details of the sentence, the comparison is unfair between the "real universe" and "mathematical objects", as the difference that is presented does not come from the difference between reality and mathematics, but between a universe and an object inside it. If we reverse the correspondence, comparing between a mathematical universe and a physical object, the stated difference remains between a universe and an object, no matter which one is mathematical.
Indeed, in my study of the detailed properties of the foundations of maths, I showed that the universe of set theory is not fixed but expands in time. During this expansion, its properties never stop evolving, as established by the truth undefinability theorem.
As for "In the real universe it is always some present moment", it still begs for a specification of the mathematical shape of the present moment : in which direction does it slice space-time ? What determines the choice of this direction ? Does it span the whole universe ? I have the same "problem" with my own interpretation of quantum physics, except that I clearly admit that the real answer is in a metaphysical reality that escapes the laws of physics. And finally, as I asked earlier : how thick is the slice of the present ? do events vanish into non-existence as soon as they are past, only remaining temporarily real in the form of a destructible memory ? In my view they don't (the past reality keeps eternally existing as a past reality).
"The universe exists apart from being evoked by the human imagination, while mathematical objects do not exist before and apart from being evoked by human imagination." Did the universe exist before the Big Bang occurred ?
Now coming back to my wonder, of : why did he not give the example of the wave-function collapse as a difference between reality and mathematics ? Well, it may be because his work on the foundations of quantum physics is precisely about believing hard in the possibility, and actively searching for, a mathematical description of the wave-function collapse. Since, no matter the pretense to believe in the metaphysical or any conceptual differences between maths and physics, the fact is, in which sense can anyone conceive of a naturalistic explanation of the wave-function collapse (or generally, any naturalistic law of physics), if not in the sense that it is expressible as a deterministic law ? Which, of course... ultimately has to take the form of a mathematical equation in order for it to be a deterministic law at all (no matter his insistence, in some other articles, on the difference between linearity and non-linearity : this does not constitute any essential difference in the sense of the fundamental difference between mathematical and non-mathematical laws or realities).