Dear Ian Durham,
The relation (Dx/Dt) = c = (dx/dt) has not only mathematical sense but physical meaning, because a measurement of the left hand side ratio (Dx/Dt) implies the measurement of the right hand side ratio (Dx/Dt), both ratios being equal to the speed of light. The issue of relativistic localization is studied with great detail in the reference 6 cited above in a previous post. The physical explanation of why dx/dt can be measured can be obtained from the study done of dx and of dt. In your Essay you affirm that we cannot measure the instantaneous speed, because --as you repeat again above-- "Delta t must have a non-zero lower bound". However, when we repeat the analysis for x, we find that this lower bound for Dt does not prevent us from measuring the value of c, by the technical reasons stated in previous posts.
Regarding the relation between quantum mechanics and quantum field theory, you repeat some well-known trivial stuff, such as that time is absolute in quantum mechanics or that in relativistic quantum field theory we study functions of spacetime (x,t). However, nothing of these trivial stuff addresses the technical points stated in my previous posts, neither in the references cited in my own Essay. For instance, in my previous post, I remarked a very specific property of x where QM and QFT are clearly in contradiction, as is well-known, and even cited a standard textbook in QFT, where this contradiction is emphasized.
Dirac emphasized his disagreement because QED (QFT) was not compatible with QM. Dirac thoughts were given in my Essay and I partially quoted a relevant part in a previous post from mine. They key point here is that QFT does not reduce to QM, as Dirac stated and how has been rigorously proven in the references cited before. About other aspects of your post, the rest of references cited in my Essay give very detailed technical responses.
Effectively, as I have just emphasized "there exist limits where that discreteness is indistinguishable from a continuum", but this does not imply your claim that "classical physics is a myth". In fact, I am just saying the contrary than you! Classical physics is not myth, but a limiting case of quantum physics.
Your analysis of the car speedometer resembles the Schrödinger-cat paradox. This old paradox was based in a naive (without any mathematical rigor or experimental support) interpretation of the quantum theory, where a cat would be in some strange quantum superposition unless some physicist would look to it. But as our modern understanding of the quantum theory reflects, the cat will be classical even if no physicist is present at the lab. The same can be said about the car and the engineer. The car will be not classical or not according to engineer's boss choices about the number of decimal places in speedometer. With independence of the precision of the car's speedometer, this will be a classical car, not one in some weird quantum superposition between New York and Paris, for instance. The same argument hold for your appeal to bathroom scales; with independence of its precision, you will be not superposed between bathroom and kitchen.
You repeat your comments about QED being the most accurate physical theory ever developed, but again you omit the technical details. I already put your statement in a right context in my first post of day 16!
You add now that QED is "ultimately a discrete theory". But this is another exaggeration, because QED is a theory of quantum fields and the quantum fields are continuum objects (with continuum spectral decomposition and continuum basis). Moreover, QED also treats volume and others properties as a continuum.
You are right on the existence of different views regarding history. However, not all the views are in the same footing (for instance, the view that Einstein played no role in the development of relativity is maintained by some very few historians, but their view is strongly rejected by the rest of historians). Regarding the history of the atomic theory, it is broadly accepted by historians of science (and I do not know anyone who disagree!) that chemists of the 18th and 19th were the first to develop a scientific theory where the Universe was considered to be composed of tiny particles called atoms. I have given arguments, the names of relevant scientists as Dalton, and how using this discrete model, they were able to explain empirical laws then without any explanation.
Moreover, as is well-known to historians of science, electricity was considered to be made of discrete negative particles before the 20th century:
"Now the most startling result of Faraday's Law is perhaps this. If we accept the hypothesis that the elementary substances are composed of atoms, we cannot avoid concluding that electricity also, positive as well as negative, is divided into definite elementary portions which behave like atoms of electricity."
Those discrete units of electricity were named "electrons" by physicist Stoney in the 19th, who added about his paper "On the Physical Units of Nature" the following: "I called attention to this minimum quantity of electricity as one of three physical units, the absolute amounts of which are furnished to us by Nature, and which may be made the basis of a complete body of systematic units in which there shall be nothing arbitrary".
As a conclusion, the affirmation done in your Essay on that everyone before the 20th century believed in a continuum Universe is one without historical basis.