• [deleted]

Dear Eckard,

I posted the following in George Ellis' thread but it has disappeared. (Just now reposted anyway). I am copying it to you now.

Dear George,

I shall clear the theoretical side first, and address the personal allegations/misunderstandings later.

George wrote: "The Lorentz transformation equation ..... is verified every day by the operation of electric motors and generators, ....... I show how the standard relations between electric and magnetic field due to relative motion follow from the standard Lorentz transformation laws, and specifically the equation [x' = gamma(x -ut)]".

Eckard wrote: 'Being an old EE, I cannot confirm that the Lorentz transformation "is verified every day by the operation of electric motors and generators. ... This relation is tested millions of times every day by the way standard electrical equipment operates."

It is no surprise that among those who question the strict validity of SRT, a very high number of them are EE's. This is because, SRT theorists, dogmatically and zealously, for propaganda and pedagogic reasons tend to cross the line of SRT's area of applicability (v tending to c), and try to generalize it to claim that it applies for all conditions as regards "standard electrical equipment" etc. And by such exaggerated claims these theorists only discredit and bring disrepute to SRT. We must remember, the theory has been named "Special Relativity" because it HOLDS STRICTLY TRUE ONLY for the condition v tending to c. And for this reason in French it is called the "Restricted theory of Relativity", i.e. the theory is of restricted validity to the condition v tending to c.

a) In all experiments conducted on earth on fast moving particles, beginning with Kaufman's experiments from which Lorentz elicited the empirical equation by iteration of data, the term u in the equation is earth's orbital velocity. So I would have been surprised if this term did not appear in electric motors as well under analogous conditions.

There is no dispute about George's statement if it is referring to a term involving earth's motion being involved in electric motors and generators. However, "involvement" does not mean it manifests clearly under all conditions. It will manifest clearly in strict conformity to the equation only in case of high electron velocities (theoretically). As the electron velocity drops progressively, the results will conform less and less to the equation. Even at moderate velocities, there will be a 'fuzzy term' involving u, if very accurate observations are made, but it will not strictly confirm the equation. At very low speeds at which ordinary electric motors run, this term will be almost imperceptible. This is what Eckard is confirming by his experience as an EE.

Here is why.

(Please open the attachment to refer to the diagram).

I have already discussed the physics of LT in my previous post. Now let us look at it from a logical view point.

If the LT equation holds strictly for the condition v/c tending to 1, then the equation that will hold for all velocities is

x' = (v/c)(c -u)t.gamma.

= gamma.vt - gamma.(ut.v/c)

If we take the term gamma.(ut.v/c) = ut sin(theta) (see the diagram attached). When v/c tends to 1, this term looms large approximates to ut. And it forms the area of applicability of SRT.

Where v/c tends to zero the term vanishes, then x' = gamma vt. This is the area of applicability of Newtonian mechanics. For all experiments conducted on earth gamma = 1.000000005. However in Newtonian measurements an accuracy of the order of 10-8 is not realized. Therefore, by rule of thumb, in practice the equation for displacement of x = vt has been accepted.

(See Attachment)

There is a vast area in between the two areas of applicability, where mixed results will be obtained.

By recognizing the equation x' = v/c(x -ut).gamma, it breaks down the areas of applicability and automatically unifies Newtonian mechanics and SRT.Attachment #1: 2_LT_in_electric_phenomena.doc

    • [deleted]

    (Same story as before. The post on George Ellis' threadd has disappeared. So I am posting it here for the record)

    Dear Eckard and George,

    1. There is a connection between MMX and Maxwell as Eckard has pointed out. In 1878, one year before Maxwell died he suggested an experiment to detect that effects of the second order. It is this idea that Michelson took up and used for the experiment of 1882 onwards.

    2. George wrote: "The way a moving charge generates a magnetic field follows directly from the standard Lorentz transformation matrix L^a_b applied to the electromagnetic field tensor Fab, see page 349-353 of Flat and Curved Spacetimes for an explicit derivation of this relation. This is a valid derivation of the theory underlying all use of electromagnets in electric motors and relays. My statement is correct".

    a) Are you not confusing between

    Lorentz transformation x' = gamma(x -ut) and

    Lorentz Force FE = (q2v2) (Mu)0 /2(pi)r ?

    b) Aren't electric motors and relays governed by Biot-Savart's law and not Lorentz force?

    Best regards,

    Viraj

    Pentcho,

    Morin wrote:

    (1) "what experiments showed was that light surprisingly moved with speed c in every frame, no matter which way the frame was moving through the supposed ether. (2) There were therefore two possibilities. Either something was wrong with Maxwell's equations, or something was wrong with the Galilean transformations."

    Inspired by Feist and in agreement with Cristov, Marmet, and others I question (1). This means, I see (2) and all other implications unfounded. Morin's chapter did not tell me anything new or anything relevant. Which inference by Morin do you consider valid? The speed of a wave (no matter whether sound or light) is independent of the speed of its source, and there is no contraction of the real length, merely an observed Doppler effect.

    It was the disparate attempt to explain the unexpected null result that caused FitzGerald and Lorentz to imagine the length contraction of the interferometer arm as an ultimate remedy.

    Eckard

    • [deleted]

    Dear Viraj,

    I understand that you are upset because George Ellis deleted your post. Let's see his reaction as an indication of lacking factual arguments. You are quite right; Neither those electrical engineers who are dealing for instance with motors bor those who are dealing with electromagnetic waves need Einstein's relativity.

    Yes, George Ellis provided a very obvious example for unfounded belief-based propaganda. In case one cannot easily decide whether or not such statements are correct, emphatically exaggerated claims tend to be not trustworthy.

    Let me quote Earl Bertrand R:: "The solution of the difficulties which formerly surrounded the ... is probably the greatest achievement of which our age has to boast." Does this sound serious to you?

    George Ellis pointed me to vol. 2 of the famous Feynman lectures. He is right, Feynman was teaching electro-magnetics from his relativist point of view. When I read the text decades ago, I did not yet doubt that Einstein's relativity is correct and I admired Feynman's elegant while speculative rather than oriented on the needs of engineering style. So far I have only vol. 2 at hand. Feynman refers there to his intro in relativity in vol. 1.

    More later, best regards,

    Eckard

    • [deleted]

    Eckard,

    You believe that "the speed of a wave (no matter whether sound or light) is independent of the speed of its source, and there is no contraction of the real length..."

    I tried to call your attention to the fact that the two statements are incompatible. Length contraction (initially introduced by FitzGerald and Lorentz) can easily be derived from the assumption that the speed of light is independent of the speed of the source. I referred you to David Morin's text (pp. 12-16) because his derivation is good and easy to understand.

    Pentcho Valev

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    Dear Eckard,

    Thanks. I am not really upset, but it shows what kind of a set up FQXi is.

    I think, the elimination of my posts happen automatically at FQXi on Ellis' instructions. Anyway, even if it is othrwise, when someone 'reports a post as inappropriate' it is flagged for the administrator to check whether it really has inappropriate subject matter. If the administrator does not use his proper judgement or acts in a biased manner, then FQXi is running this competition for the benefit of a pre-selected few with a definite set of ideas.

    Best regards,

    Viraj

    Pentcho Valev,

    Sorry, it is not a matter of belief but an experimentally proven and undisputed fact that the front of an acoustic wave in air propagates relative to the air independent of possible motion of the source or the receiver. If you know that a missile can travel faster than the sound it emits then you may conclude that there is no superposition of the two velocities. Otherwise the sound would be heard before the missile hits the target.

    What's your problem?

    Eckard

    • [deleted]

    I meant light, Eckard, not sound. "Sound" just happened to be in the phrase I quoted from you - I would have deleted it if I had known your reaction.

    What's my problem? Well... lots of problems... let's discuss them some other time.

    Pentcho Valev

    Pentcho,

    Are phonons pointlike particles? I guess, that's close to your problem?

    Eckard

    Dear Constantinos,

    Having no illusions I did not yet vote and will not do so until I understood at least those essays that I would like to support. I am not sure. Just after I wrote that something in the essay by George Ellis reminds me of making negative resistance an issue, and George Ellis replied imprudently, he lost his leading position. My numerical votes will not make such a difference.

    Maybe you can help Pentcho. He seems to believe that he is entitled to derive from MMX and Pound/Rebka experiment that light consists of photons that behave like bodies. Most cranks believe that the appealing postulate of relativity is correct but c is not constant. Not just I agree with you that any wave propagates with its specific c, and of course, if something propagates with c then this indicates it is a wave rather than a body. Perhaps, nobody is interested in your calculations because they are not surprising.

    In case of my essay I noticed several unfulfilled promises to comment on it. Why?

    My essay touches many taboos and offers unbelievable relevant corrections. Virtual all mathematicians and physicists were told that Georg Cantor, Hilbert, Einstein, etc. were the greatest. They suspect that I, a nobody, can only be wrong. It is much easier to ignore all my arguments than to try and refute only a single one of them. The most helpful comment on an argument of mine was made by George Ellis when he hurt me by recommending Feynman's lectures to me. It will be troublesome to me revealing mistakes.

    Best,

    Eckard

    • [deleted]

    Dear Eckard,

    I think we can all lament the lack of real substantive discussions of the arguments in our essays. But some of us can claim more such discussion than others. I think you are among those with more! While I still wait for targeted replies to specifics I've made. Still, I am grateful for all comments. And in earnest seek to respond to all comments. To the extend of my understanding of these.

    You write, "nobody is interested in your calculations because they are not surprising." Could you please elaborate on that? Specifically, please argue why the following are not "surprising":

    1)My Planck's Formula derivation using simple continuous processes and not needing 'energy quanta', as all other derivations of this Formula had to.

    2)My mathematical derivation of The Law of Inertia, showing this not a postulated 'universal physical law', but a mathematical truism in my formulation; using the prime physis 'eta' (the time integral of energy)

    3)My mathematical derivation of the de Broglie equations illuminating the real nature of 'matter waves', frequency and wavelength. Allowing these to be any real positive or negative number (not 'mathematical artifacts')

    4) My argument to Pentcho that all observers are at rest relative to 'empty physical space'. Since otherwise an observer would need to be 'apart and outside' this physical space which defines existence in our Universe. Thus explaining CSL.

    5)My mathematical proof (and importance) of the proposition: "if the speed of light is constant, than light propagates as a wave". This, note, is a different statement from what Maxwell has shown, "if light is a wave, than the speed of light is constant". My statement clearly shows CSL contradicts the Photon Hypothesis. Thus falsifying the corpuscular nature of light.

    Eckard, these are only a small part of my many 'striking' results. And only what I included in my Endnotes and under my essay discussion - new for the 'public record'. That others don't find these 'striking' speaks more on their expectations of what constitutes 'striking' than the striking truth contained in these.

    We are all programed to 'meet our expectations'. And if we are looking for 'multiverses' and exotic Spacetime 4-manifolds and non-linear operators acting on Hilbert spaces, we could miss some simple truths Nature has placed in front of our eyes! Which truths our 'metaphysical dislocation' will not allow us to 'see'. What my essay, "The Metaphysics of Physics", argues is happening with modern physics!

    Best regards,

    Constantinos

    • [deleted]

    Dear Constantinos,

    re. your response to Eckard, Number 4. is really interesting. Where is that empty space (that the observer can perceive filled with objects)? Is it external to the observer or an internal fabrication (from received sensory data input), produced together with the "information"/ "knowledge" that this exists externally? Which then begs the question if that which is seen is not the external reality, what is there instead? and how does the unobserved space and objects relate to the observed?

    It seems to me that though the observer is also a part of the foundational external reality, the fabrication he makes from received data is both a part of it and separate. As the electrical and chemical activity of the brain is a part of the foundational reality but the perceived output is not. (for analogy :The paper and ink of a book are a part of the external reality but the fantasy realm fabricated from the words (or symbols) is not.) I mentioned Roger Penrose's (Twistor space) description of the light cone and Joy Christian's recent work in my essay as I think they might helpfully describe, or lead to helpful mathematical description of, the data transmission through the pre-space-time environment from source to detection, which is the link between the two facets of reality.

    So if you mean space-time when you refer to "this physical space which defines existence in our Universe", then maybe the observer really is not contained within it (but contains it ). It is a very strange set structure. I don't know what you will make of that. I think it is interesting and thought perhaps you might too.

    I regret not having yet responded with worthwhile, helpful feedback on your essay. If it was easy I'd have done it long ago.I still have good intentions.

    Dear Georgina, dear Constantinos,

    Let me explain in what my notion of reality differes from yours. Ken Wharton and I agreed on that there is only one objective reality. Ian Durham spoke of slightly different ones.

    I wrote on p. 4: "While reality and causality are, of course, also assumptions, we need them as logical alternatives to unacceptable mere imagination and mysticism, respectively."

    It does not matter whether I correct or wrong when I assume the reality of an object of concern. We can neither observe nor prepare for sure and completely such reality because it is a generally assumed attribution, not something tangible.

    The past is the domain of reality. The future is the domain of possibility. The notion present means a deliberately undecided mix of both and is therefore not suited for physics. In reality, expected events did not yet happen.

    It is reasonable to assume that one and the same object is only once real. Two different signs can be used for instance in order to numerically describe opposite directions. Given a calculation yields positive and negative frequencies. May we necessarily attribute different physical meanings to them? No. Because of lost information with almost always skipped logical steps from reality to the mathematical model and return, one has to check the mathematical result and if necessary omit artifacts, in particular the advanced solution.

    Everybody will agree that for instance a negative length is unreal. It can however be necessary to not omit it as long as one operates in a fictitious mathematical domain. See my Figs. 1 and 2.

    Regards,

    Eckard

      Dear Constantinos,

      Perhaps nobody in the community will be surprised when we show that Pentcho is wrong. Only Georgina found your 4. claim interesting. You wrote:

      "My argument to Pentcho that all observers are at rest relative to 'empty physical space'. Since otherwise an observer would need to be 'apart and outside' this physical space which defines existence in our Universe. Thus explaining CSL."

      If observer 1 is in motion relative to observer 2 then I wonder how they both can be at rest relative to empty physical space (Israel Perez's aether).

      I will avoid a discussion with Georgina because she follows Albert Einstein who made the observer an issue. While observers are of course not outside reality, I see processes in the objective reality quite independent from any observer except if he is involved in the observed process. I suggest you will discuss with Georgina elsewhere unless there is a connection to my essay.

      Pentcho got it: "Michelson and Morley should have calculated and expected the NULL result". I am sure this is definitely an annoying surprise to many physicists and also exciting and unbelievable to almost every layman.

      Best regards,

      Eckard

      • [deleted]

      Dear Eckard,

      you wrote: "the past is the domain of reality". That is an opinion based upon a particular understanding of what reality is. You are I think referring to those things that have been measured or observed. Do things only become a reality upon observation?

      I agree that -The- (unwritten) future is open to possibility. However knowing that perception comes after actualised events aren't those things now existing ahead of the output realisation or manifestation of them also in a more foundational way in a domain of reality, (ie. one that is ahead of the experienced present, not the past).

      Amanda Gefter has written about each observer having their own observed universe.Something to which I have also alluded. In that context an object can be be observed as a reality more than once, as each observer will manifest the object from the data he/she /it has uniquely received.

      While I probably don't fully understand the sign problem you are talking about, it does seem to me that whether there is a rotation to right or left does make a difference as it will alter the data that is received and so the output manifestation produced from it. Which could make an obvious difference for a non uniform source object. I am not saying this to be annoying or disrespectful but just to give another perspective- that may or may not be relevant to your argument.

      By the way I would greatly appreciate your consideration of my essay as I respect your knowledge and very sensible consideration of matters.

      Kind regards Georgina.

      Hello Georgina,

      We should be considerate of our host and move our discussion elsewhere away from his living room. He may wish to retire to his bedroom for the evening! Look for my response under my essay.

      • [deleted]

      Dear Eckard you write,

      "If observer 1 is in motion relative to observer 2 then I wonder how they both can be at rest relative to empty physical space"

      They will both be at rest relative to the 'empty physical space' they occupy.

      May we simplify the space to the straight line IR of real numbers and set the velocity between two points on it equal to zero. Why should we deny the possibility to move this tandem relative to IR?

      Dear Escard,

      Thanks for the reference. I think that result of Acoustic Michelson-Morley Experiment by Feist prove again that observer can not with the help of internal two-way measurements of signal speed to find its velocity in space. If you take in account in the Feist experiment Lorentz contraction then the formula for signal speed gives dilation of time.

      Sergey Fedosin

        Dear Eckard

        I take your essay as querying taking the use of mathematical models of reality too far: and I agree with you on this. I also agree on your take on time, and on your comment "It is mistake to keep differential equations for primary. They are merely abstractions from the originally integrating relationships" Correct: and those integrating relationships involve boundary conditions or initial conditions whereby global relations constrain local physics - in concordance with my own essay.

        I disagree on special relativity, as you know. I believe it's very well established. Any experiments of quality that disagree with it must of course be take seriously: they must be repeated by independent experimenters to check their validity. But you'll find it hard finding experimentalists willing to invest time, money and effort into that project: given all the other experiments that support SR, it is so unlikely it will prove anything interesting.

        George

        George