Helmut,

I appreciate your comments, and I agree that prior attempts to resolve wave-particle duality were unsuccessful. However, my essay shows explicitly how macroscopic particle trajectories may be derived from microscopic quantum waves, even including relativistic time effects. This approach avoids the conventional quantum indeterminacy which is incompatible with general relativity. There are no point particles; on a microscopic level, everything consists of distributed relativistic rotating vector fields with quantized spin. These can be fully visualized in real space; there is no mysterious nonlocal quantum entanglement. Yes, this is quite unconventional, but appears to be consistent with the real physical foundations of both quantum mechanics and relativity. This could have been proposed in the early days of QM, but apparently never was.

Alan

12 days later

Dear Alan M. Kadin

You've found our common problems : "The foundations of modern physics are neither consistent nor unified".But if the conclusion is : "The New Quantum Paradigm provides a logically consistent foundation for all of physics,and reestablishes the classical guiding principles of local reality and determinism."can be enough for us to solve all the problems of the theory on reality platform?what is the specific answers for problems on our topics ?

http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/1802

    7 days later

    Dear Alan,

    Nice to see such an original approach. Away from the contest I utilise geometry to explain spin and quantum entanglement as hidden fixed constants, so appreciated something along the lines which you work.

    Also, despite my essay concluding differently, I like that you are one of the few who opt for Bit from It, as I feel too many assume the opposite.

    Refreshing read!

    Best wishes,

    Antony

      Alan

      What do you thinking about variation rest mass of proton and electron?

      http://vixra.org/pdf/1212.0080v3.pdf

      Regards

      Yuri

        Yuri,

        With regard to the rest masses of elementary particles, I am suggesting that these decrease in a gravitational field, at least as far as their long-range gravitational influence outside the field. However, because of the slowing of the local clocks inside the field, any local measurements will obtain the standard unmodified values of the rest masses. That is a subtle but important distinction.

        Alan

        Antony,

        Thank you for your comments. From general principles, I am convinced that information needs to be based on something physical, a real representation in the real world. That was certainly the case with classical physics, and I believe that the more modern efforts at giving quantum mechanics magical and mysterious properties divorced from real pictures was unnecessary and misleading.

        Alan

        Hoang,

        This is the final sentence in the Conclusion of my Essay:

        In response to the essay question: "It from Bit, or Bit from It? ", this essay comes down decisively in support of the latter; all physical information flows from real objects in real space.

        Alan

        4 days later

        Alan,

        If given the time and the wits to evaluate over 120 more entries, I have a month to try. My seemingly whimsical title, "It's good to be the king," is serious about our subject.

        Jim

        Dear Alan,

        It was interesting to read about your NQP. Could you kindly point me to some of your work that contains the mathematics of NQP - I would be interested in reading about it.

        Do you find any parallels between NQP and Bohmian mechanics?

        One issue is not clear to me: if I understood you right, you make a distinction between elementary and composite objects, and you say that microscopic composites do not exhibit Schrodinger cat states. Now we know that experiments do show double slit interference for composites such as atoms, fullerenes and even heavier molecules. Now the interference pattern does not `know' whether the incoming particles are elementary or composite. Qualitatively, the pattern is the same in both cases. If I understand you right, if the incoming particles are electrons you use superposition to explain interference. But if these are composites, you use an explanation other than superposition. I wonder why this should be so, and what this different explanation is. All this is explained in your essay I think - I haven't grasped it though.

        Regards,

        Tejinder

          Tejinder,

          Thank you for reading my essay and for your questions.

          My essay last year dealt with wave-particle duality and quantum diffraction in more depth ("The Rise and Fall of Wave-Particle Duality" ). See also a paper from 2011, Waves, Particles, and Quantized Transitions: A New Realistic Model of the Microworld . Yes, it is generally believed that diffraction experiments with objects as large as buckyballs prove the existence of de Broglie waves for these objects. However, let me refer you to the published theoretical work of Prof. Van Vliet (Linear Momentum Quantization in Periodic Structures ), who pointed out that the screen that constitutes the slits must itself be considered a quantum object. Van Vliet showed using conventional quantum operators that any interaction involving momentum transfer between the incoming object and the slits requires a quantum transition subject to exactly the same constraints that one would obtain from a wave picture. So for example, neutron diffraction from a crystal does not prove that the neutron is a coherent de Broglie wave that extends over multiple lattice spacings. It could just as easily be a small bound particle on the fm scale, as indeed is obtained from nuclear scattering experiments.

          So what, then, actually proves that an electron is really a wave? A directional bond in a molecule (such as a p or d orbital) requires a superposition of electron waves rotating in opposite directions. But one never has states comprising superposition of rotations of molecules in both directions at the same time. (Molecular rotations are not excited inside a crystal.) That tells me that an electron is a wave, while a molecule is not.

          Note that this picture has NO point particles, in contrast to the Bohm-deBroglie pilot wave picture. But the quantum wave packet itself follows a quasi-classical trajectory, as derived directly from the quantum wave equation. No special decoherence is needed to recover classical physics, and there are no nonlocal influences.

          I am surprised that I have not been getting more questions about the major points of this year's essay: 1) General relativity may be simply derived from quantum waves, in a way that eliminates black holes, and (2) The generalized Quantum Hilbert Space Model, which gives rise to quantum entanglement and quantum computing, may be invalid.

          Yes, all this requires a radical re-thinking of physical pictures that have been well established for a century. But the very existence of this essay contest indicates that something is rotten in the state of physics.

          Alan

          The topic for this round of essays is broad; one could submit an essay on home repair and have a good argument that the essay was within topic. How can one have a point mass with angular momentum? Spin might not be the same as macroscopic angular momentum, but spin behaves like angular momentum. We have a possible answer - swirls instead of dots. In over-simplified terms, Wheeler's bits (or dots) are really wheels, the whole premise of "it from bit or bit from it" has started out on the wrong foot. This New Quantum Paradigm (NQP) model seems to solve the issue of locality where quantum mechanics and relativity seem to conflict.

          I like the idea going back to the fundamentals and this clear and breezy writing style gets the point across well. The author does a very good job at keeping this essay accessible to as many general science readers as possible. The first year of Physics is all one needs to keep up with the math.

          The problem with this model is that it is not relative. All rotating vectors are related by just the addition of a constant to some master clock. What is the motional frame and location of this master clock? This model uses absolute (not relative) time.

          Jeff Schmitz

            Dear Dr. Kadin -

            I find your ideas of great interest.

            The gist of your dissertation is that the inner space of quanta can be projected across the Cosmos: 'Time is not a dimension imposed from without; instead, it is a parameter for characterizing the local evolution of quantum fields.'

            This parameter then becomes extended across the Cosmos: 'Quantum mechanics describes physics on the microscopic level, and must provide the basis for macroscopic physics.'

            I agree with this, but like you I find that 'the transition from indeterministic microphysics to deterministic macrophysics has always been obscure.'

            Or, to put it another way - how do the quantum fields add up to a Cosmos?

            I deduce in my essay that the Cosmos must be divided into Zones - wherein only one Zone (the space-time continuum) exhibits the fixed speed of light with which we are familiar; this speed then varies (as you describe) - only it does so beyond this Zone, where the continuum unravels.

            I reach this conclusion by first showing how such sub-divisions occur within Particles, and then show how this allows quanta to aggregate into a Cosmos with which they correlate to produce all perceived phenomena.

            In your conclusion, you come down in favor of 'It to Bit' - but, without Zones within which parameters are less dimensional, the consistency between quanta and Cosmos you describe suggests rather strongly that we can know all of reality at some point.

            Can the mind ever be so perfectly contiguous with the field of observation? I say no: We have to consider evolution, which continually demonstrates that at any time there is a great deal we do not know - and that this must surely continue to be our condition, the alternative being an eventual 'perfect match' between Observer and Cosmos, which seems unlikely.

            I bring this up because the idea of a correlation between Bit and It arises - rather than the notion of simply choosing one over the other: I mean, of course, a correlation that maintains flux between Bit and It over the evolutionary time span. The contiguity of the human mind with the Cosmos always has certain limits.

            This ties in with my concept of Zones, and also means that we should beware of projecting space-time parameters on to quanta, and vice versa, without accounting for Zones of varying dimensionality, and for the continuous effects of evolution.

            For this reason among others I am emboldened to think that my essay might add some complementary elements to your paradigm.

            I have, of course, rated your essay - and very much look forward to hearing from you.

            All the best, Dr. Kadin!

              Dear Alan,

              I just read your essay and I have some serious questions:

              1) Does the background vector field define a preferred rest frame?

              Since your framework is explicitly relativistic, the answer would have to be be no, but then I have difficulty seeing how the frame in which the rotators are all at rest is not preferred over all others. Indeed I come away with the impression that in your framework, motion (other than that associated with the rotators) is an illusion and that everything is really at rest, but just "pops" in and out so to make it appear as if it is moving in space.

              2) Do the rotators define a preferred plane orientation in space?

              It seems that you would want the answer to be "no" for otherwise isotropy of space is broken with concomitant consequences for angular momentum conservation. But then I have a difficulty visualizing the rotator. Is the plane of the rotator relative to the observer? What if you have multiple observers observing an object from different angles? Do you have multiple rotators at the same location but rotating along different directions? This is very fuzzy to me.

              3) What does the amplitude of the rotator signify?

              I missed a physical interpretation of the rotator, and related to this question is whether it is possible to define a rotator density. Is this possible and if so, how does it relate to the amplitude?

              4) How do you get the Born Rule out of the framework for elementary and composite particles such that it takes the differences in your framework into account?

              You mentioned the Born Rule in your essay but then went right on to other aspects of QM, so that I am not at all clear how you get the Born Rule out of your framework.

              5) Do the rotators only rotate in one direction?

              As you know, from the Born rule one can deduce that the complex conjugate of the quantum state is physically on the same footing as the state itself. How do you account for that in your theory? Also, I am not sure on this but it seems to me that if you have two observers between whom the rotator field that describes a particle is located, they would have to give opposite descriptions of the rotational direction.

              6) How does your framework account for contextuality?

              If the spin values of elementary particles are already determined before a measurement, then this would seem to violate Kochen Specker, or the simpler analogues like the Mermin magic square. How do you avoid this?

              7) Why should nature be characterized just in the way by the model you describe as opposed to some other?

              I guess this is more of a metaphysical question, and I should admit that I have a philosophical prejudice that at bottom nature is fundamentally simple and intelligible to us. Your model may unify some aspects of nature that are currently not describable in a unified way, but frankly it seems no more intuitive or conceptually intelligible than quantum mechanics to me. The questions that come to my mind are: Why rotators? What are they made of? Why a particular frequency or amplitude that characterizes each (as opposed to a distribution)? Can an individual rotator be isolated?

              There are also a few statements that I think will be regarded as controversial by some physicists:

              "In the orthodox Copenhagen

              interpretation, the quantum wave is instead a statistical distribution of point particles"

              My understanding is that the orthodox Copenhagen interpretation only regards post-measurement states as point particles. If it is characterizable as a quantum wave, it is a pre-measurement state.

              "Similar Hilbert space product states provide the basis for quantum entanglement, whereby a measurement on one particle in a pair of coupled particles immediately changes the physical state of the other particle"

              I think that this statement is stronger than what has been experimentally shown, and though some physicists do believe that this is what entanglement amounts to, I think it is a misunderstanding.

              All the experiments license us to claim is that if we perform a set of measurements on spacelike separated entangled states we will, after we bring the measurement results together, notice that they were correlated with each other.

              The difference between your statement and mine is subtle but real. To see this consider just that in SR the time ordering for spacelike separated events is frame-dependent. Your statement can then only be true if there was an absolute frame in which one measurement event came before the other, or if retroactive causal effects are admitted, both highly dubious. But instead of thinking that this means that standard QM is wrong, I think it is better to just stick to what the experiment licenses us to claim: If A performs a measurement on a, she is only entitled to claim that if B makes a measurement on b, he will find a correlated result. This does not imply that A's measurement of a changed the state of b before B's measurement of b (your statement).

              The difference is that B still needs to perform a measurement in order to establish the correlation whereas your statement implies that this is unnecessary. In my view, the necessity that B needs to make a measurement is quite consistent with the orthodox view that in essence, the observer "creates" the particle with a measurement. Before B makes a measurement *there is no particle* which subsumes the fact that there is no correlated particle.

              Of course, this does not answer the question of how the correlations are enforced for spacelike separated events. This is regarded as an open question, but I'd like to mention that I just gave a talk on this where at least it seems to me that the framework on which I have been working on suggests a simple answer, and the talk slides (a quick read) are available online:

              http://vixra.org/pdf/1306.0097v2.pdf

              Lastly, allow me to state that I found your essay very clearly written. I think that answering the questions above will go a long way toward persuading others of the merits of your idea.

              All the best,

              Armin

                Armin,

                Thank you for taking the time to read my essay, and for your detailed set of questions. As you know, this presents a neo-classical picture, going back to the very beginning, and reconstructing quantum mechanics on a consistent realistic wave basis. Much of this was described in my essay last year, "The Rise and Fall of Wave-Particle Duality" . Let me respond to your questions individually:

                1) Does the background vector field define a preferred rest frame?

                Consider a circularly polarized EM wave packet. This corresponds to rotating vector fields in a region of space, moving at c. This has no rest frame, but if one uses a dispersion relation appropriate for a de Broglie wave, the group velocity is less than c, and one can Lorentz-transform to the rest frame, in exactly the same way as for a massive particle. Here, in the rest frame, one has a localized vector field rotating at mc^2/h.

                2) Do the rotators define a preferred plane orientation in space?

                In the rest frame, the spin axis could point in any direction, at random. (The figure is made for easy drawing and visualization.) If one were to Lorentz-transform this random distribution to a wave packet moving near c, the spin axis would form a narrow distribution around the direction of motion, similar to circular polarization of a TEM wave for a photon.

                3) What does the amplitude of the rotator signify?

                The amplitude is exactly analogous to that of an E-field in a TEM wave. Its square gives the density of energy, momentum, and angular momentum. There is no statistical significance.

                4) How do you get the Born Rule out of the framework for elementary and composite particles such that it takes the differences in your framework into account?

                The Born rule derives the statistical distribution of results of a given quantum measurement, so I assume you are really asking how one can obtain a statistical distribution from a deterministic picture without additional "hidden variables". I view a quantum measurement as the result of a dynamic interaction between a given quantum state and an instrument that leads to a reconfiguration of the quantum state, i.e., a true quantum transition. The detailed dynamics of this transition requires a complete formulation of the self-interaction, which is not yet part of the theory. However, I would suggest that a set of uncontrolled initial conditions (e.g., relative phase angles) of the quantum system and perturbation/instrument should be sufficient to yield the expected statistical distribution.

                5) Do the rotators only rotate in one direction?

                The rotation of the fields constitutes angular momentum (as it does classically for Maxwell's equations), corresponding to quantized spin. Rotation in the reverse direction corresponds to opposite spin.

                6) How does your framework account for contextuality?

                If I understand correctly, contextuality refers to the fact that the results of a measurement depend on the measuring instrument. I would assert that the quantum state is defined both before and after the measurement (being a distributed field in both cases), but that the measurement process can change the state of the system. So I don't see a conflict here.

                7) Why should nature be characterized just in the way by the model you describe as opposed to some other?

                The universal belief for much of the past century is that a consistent realistic picture is impossible. By presenting a specific counterexample for examination, I am challenging that belief. Second, I believe that simple is good, and this is much simpler than the conventional picture. Finally, the fact that I can obtain something that looks like General Relativity out of a realistic quantum picture seems quite remarkable. They are generally believed to be fundamentally incompatible.

                Thank you again for your interest. I also read your very interesting essay, and will post some questions on your essay page later.

                Alan

                Alan,

                This is quite an interesting entry. It really does seem to peel away the math and dig up the physics.

                My answer to the time problem is that we experience it as sequence from past to future and physics validates this by treating it as a measure of interval, but the actual process is dynamic change which turns future into past. We are not traveling some dimension from yesterday to tomorrow. tomorrow becomes yesterday. There is only what is physically real and that is what we experience as present. So every action is its own clock, but they all exist as a dynamic space.

                Of course, as individual points of reference, we still experience it as sequence, but then we still experience the sun moving across the sky.

                You know this all far better than I, but what you are arguing seems to fit what I'm seeing, so you have my vote.

                  Dear Alan,

                  Thank you for your patient reply. You have provided a satisfactory answer to most of my questions, except for two.

                  On question 1) I am still somewhat confused. If a wave packet that moves less than c is composed of waves "comprised" (for lack of a better expression) of rotator fields that moves at c, then this implies that the length-contraction/time dilation effects must apply to them (Your framework is meant to be consistent with SR, correct?). Are the rotators perpendicular to the direction of motion? What about the time dilation effect on the period of rotation? I understand that in the standard relativistic quantum picture, the proper time must be replaced by an affine parameter for photons. Do you need to do something similar?

                  On question 6) I wonder whether permitting a measurement to change the state of an system will be enough to comply with the constraints imposed by contextuality. If you haven't already, you may wish to take a look at two papers: one by Peres "Two simple proofs of the Kochen-Specker Theorem" and the other (more important) one by Mermin "Simple unified form for the major no-hidden variable theorems" to check for yourself.

                  I hope you found my questions useful. Good luck with your framework.

                  All the best,

                  Armin

                  "

                  John,

                  Thank you for your comments. Simplicity and clarity are what I am aiming for. The intuitive pictures provide the heart of physics; the math just provides a quantitative description of these pictures. Somehow, this principle has gotten inverted in much of modern physics.

                  Thank you also for your vote. I need just a few more good ratings to make it into the "Top Forty".

                  Alan

                  Jeff,

                  Thank you for your careful reading of my essay, and for your interest. Regarding time, I don't believe that my model requires a master clock as you suggest. This is all compatible with special relativity, so one can view this from any reference frame. The presence of a gravitational potential slows down all of the clocks in a given location by the same factor, creating a slowed "proper time". For this reason, if all measurements are inside a closed elevator (a la Einstein), one cannot tell that one is in a gravitational potential. But distant measurements outside the potential can measure the changes. This is a subtle distinction, but quite important.

                  Alan

                  Dear Alan M. Kadin:

                  I am an old physician, and I don't know nothing of mathematics and almost nothing of physics, but after the common people your discipline is the one that uses more the so called "time" than any other. May be you can find something of your interest, related with your undergraduate thesis on hidden variables in quantum mechanics.

                  I am sending you a practical summary, so you can easy decide if you read or not my essay "The deep nature of reality".

                  I am convince you would be interested in reading it. ( most people don't understand it, and is not just because of my bad English). Hawking, "A brief history of time" where he said , "Which is the nature of time?" yes he don't know what time is, and also continue saying............Some day this answer could seem to us "obvious", as much than that the earth rotate around the sun....." In fact the answer is "obvious", but how he could say that, if he didn't know what's time? In fact he is predicting that is going to be an answer, and that this one will be "obvious", I think that with this adjective, he is implying: simple and easy to understand. Maybe he felt it and couldn't explain it with words. We have anthropologic proves that man measure "time" since more than 30.000 years ago, much, much later came science, mathematics and physics that learn to measure "time" from primitive men, adopted the idea and the systems of measurement, but also acquired the incognita of the experimental "time" meaning. Out of common use physics is the science that needs and use more the measurement of what everybody calls "time" and the discipline came to believe it as their own. I always said that to understand the "time" experimental meaning there is not need to know mathematics or physics, as the "time" creators and users didn't. Instead of my opinion I would give Einstein's "Ideas and Opinions" pg. 354 "Space, time, and event, are free creations of human intelligence, tools of thought" he use to call them pre-scientific concepts from which mankind forgot its meanings, he never wrote a whole page about "time" he also use to evade the use of the word, in general relativity when he refer how gravitational force and speed affect "time", he does not use the word "time" instead he would say, speed and gravitational force slows clock movement or "motion", instead of saying that slows "time". FQXi member Andreas Albrecht said that. When asked the question, "What is time?", Einstein gave a pragmatic response: "Time," he said, "is what clocks measure and nothing more." He knew that "time" was a man creation, but he didn't know what man is measuring with the clock.

                  I insist, that for "measuring motion" we should always and only use a unique: "constant" or "uniform" "motion" to measure "no constant motions" "which integrates and form part of every change and transformation in every physical thing. Why? because is the only kind of "motion" whose characteristics allow it, to be divided in equal parts as Egyptians and Sumerians did it, giving born to "motion fractions", which I call "motion units" as hours, minutes and seconds. "Motion" which is the real thing, was always hide behind time, and covert by its shadow, it was hide in front everybody eyes, during at least two millenniums at hand of almost everybody. Which is the difference in physics between using the so-called time or using "motion"?, time just has been used to measure the "duration" of different phenomena, why only for that? Because it was impossible for physicists to relate a mysterious time with the rest of the physical elements of known characteristics, without knowing what time is and which its physical characteristics were. On the other hand "motion" is not something mysterious, it is a quality or physical property of all things, and can be related with all of them, this is a huge difference especially for theoretical physics I believe. I as a physician with this find I was able to do quite a few things. I imagine a physicist with this can make marvelous things.

                  With my best whishes

                  Héctor