Hi Phil,
Thanks for the links. As one can fall into a black hole, I can imagine the mass or gravitational field within the horizon to continue outside of it. However, if when nothing can escape from behind the horizon so an observer outside of it cannot interact with what's inside of it, then the area the horizon encloses still would be a space where all points are physically identical to him, which I think is impossible.
The paper you refer to doesn't prove that a black hole has an event horizon, it only proves that it has no surface, unlike a neutron star. In a self-creating universe (as opposed to a big bang universe) a black hole has no surface nor event horizon.
Though I'm familiar with special relativity (SR), my math is rusty, not up to comprehend general relativity (GR) so I try to understand it using what I know of SR -if such a thing is possible. My problem with GR is that while according to Einstein ''the inert mass . . . increases when ponderable masses approach the test body.'' (''The Meaning of Relativity'' p 97) agrees with the notion that particles and particle properties must be both cause and effect of their interactions. However, that there exist solutions of Einstein's field equation ''that ascribe inertial properties to a single particle in an otherwise empty universe'' (''Concepts of Mass in Physics and Philosophy'' (2000) Max Jammer p 157) contradict it since to have properties requires the existence of something to interact with, to express it. Ignoring this, a particle can only have mass in an empty universe if it only is the cause of forces, if its mass is an inherent, privately owned quantity. So my question is whether the energy in some area which goes into Einstein's field equation is, as I suspect, an absolute quantity, only the cause of forces, in which case a black hole indeed would have an event horizon.
A related point is that when we must reject causality (as you do in your 2012 essay), then we can no longer interpret the 'speed of light' as a (finite) velocity of light, but as a property of spacetime, which is something else entirely (see http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/1328), even though it obviously is a limit to the velocity massive objects can move at. So my next question to you is whether a black hole has an event horizon or not depends on whether the 'speed of light' refers to the velocity of light or to a property of spacetime?
From the arxiv paper you referred to:
''A black hole represents the ultimate victory of gravity, where all the mass in the object collapses down to a ''singularity'', a true geometrical point. The object has no material surface. Instead, surrounding the singularity is an ''event horizon'', which plays the role of a virtual surface. The event horizon is a one-way membrane through which matter and energy can fall in from the outside, but nothing, not even light, can escape from within. The region inside the horizon is thus causally cut off from the outside world. In a real sense, the horizon serves as an effective surface, even though there is no actual material there.''
What I object to in this quote is ''the ultimate victory of gravity'' which implies the mass to be the cause of the collapse: if and when the mass of objects indeed is both cause and effect of their interactions, then all objects within the interaction horizon of the star which is to become a black hole is involved in its collapse, which would imply that no information is lost as it does?
As my knowledge of GR is so poor, I'd be very grateful if you would take the trouble to answer my questions,
Regards, Anton