Dear Marcoen,
Thank you for replying. And sorry about that "anonymous".
To your question: another way to put all this is to say that for any system of events (observables) there is a de facto invariant (observer). This then is the same essentially as Noether's theorem.
The idea of equality as "configuration space" (virtual work) goes to say that for us to assert that any two t's are equal we must FIRST assume a constant of proportionality "k". One may think of "k" as the invariant such that the two states (t1, t2) are merely among its possible "states". In wave motion one may say "k" is the well-behavedness. In logic generally one could call "k" the consistency.
Now we can think of Godel's incompleteness theorem as saying that one must presume the ACTIVE consistency/constant NOT at the same instance that it IS the consistency/constant also to be part of own observables/variables. Meaning "k" is essentially to itself the imaginary or virtual or (as is Newton's "inertia" only the IDEAL state [of motion]).
Now if one can see matter wave ("wave function" barring all technicalities else) as but the "configuration space" (k) of all observable matter this analogy comes through. But if you want it put strictly, I am claiming that in any system of observables the matter wave will represent qulitatively the "nothing" (same in fact as the "all things" or more conventionally the "uncertainty")
The strange thing about axiom 1. is that our entity (observer) has non-local attributes, it is the "configuration space" or "conservation law" proper. But that goes to say that in a participatory universe (one in which the observer must be assumed as subject to the same laws as its own observables) we must FIRST PRESUME any given observer as the boundary condition (the ideal constraint).
The science of thermodynamics shows us that the notion "isolated system" (thermodynamic equilibrium?) can in fact be non-trivial.
Hoping that I have been able to make myself clearer. Otherwise, Marcoen, feel free to press on.
Regards,
Chidi