Dear Akinbo,
I suppose nothing I say is going to change your perception that I am desperately clinging to SR in the face of puzzles like the existence paradox (and even the other ones I pointed out in my existence of photons paper), which should have dissuaded me from accepting the theory.
But, being the optimist that I am, let me just emphasize one last time that the reason I accept the special theory of relativity is that I find the totality of evidence compelling, and the reason that these puzzles do not only weaken my acceptance of SR but actually strengthen it is because I see these as fundamental implications of the theory which have at present not been noticed to give clues about how to understand reality at a more fundamental level and how special relativity can be derived from a common framework that also leads to quantum theory. These implications of SR, being consistent with a picture of quantum theory according to which quantum objects really "come into existence" only when they are measured point to a picture in which spacetime itself, our repository of existence, emerges from something more fundamental. I don't know if you know of my prior work on the dimensional theory, but that "something more fundamental" is, I believe, a 2+1 analog of spacetime which I call areatime. Once you understand this, then (coupled with an understanding of the dual role of metric intervals as "distance" and as "proper time" in spacetimes with Lorentzian metrics) these puzzles make perfect sense. There really is no reason for me to take these puzzles as difficulties for the theory.
"I get the impression that we reach some form of agreement that 'detection times', 'observed frequency', 'observed period' or 'observed light arrival times' can be influenced by the relative velocity. This if you crosscheck is against the principle of Lorentz invariance, according to which the velocity of the observer towards or away from the source has no effect on these observed parameters."
Well, I gave the derivation of the relativistic doppler shift in frequency earlier, what do you think is wrong with it? Or better yet, what do you think the correct expression for the relativistic doppler shift should be?
"Now what is the v in the equation? If it is relative velocity between source and receiver/observer, then in the Michelson-Morley interferometer since this is zero, then no length contraction or time dilation mechanism should occur or be applicable to explain the null findings."
I don't understand this assertion, it seems to me that you are mixing the length contraction phenomenon with the relativistic doppler shift. They are separate phenomena.
"On the other hand, if v is the observer's velocity in space towards the incoming light travelling at speed, c, then there is a dilemma of which velocities of the earthly observer in space to apply. v could simultaneously have three different velocities as it moves in space towards the light. In the M-M experiment, the v considered was the orbital velocity 30km/s about the sun. However, today, we now know that the sun as well as the Milky Way are moving with the result that in the Lorentz factor, the magnitude of v for a moving earth in space can be 30km/s, 225km/s (solar system motion in space) or 370km/s (earth motion relative to CMB). So which v applies in the Lorentz factor during the M-M experiment?"
It seems to me that you are arguing from a point of view which assumes that there is such a thing as an absolute velocity. From that point of view, I agree, that the fact that the LT could change depending on the fact that earth is moving at different velocities relative to different objects seems egregiously wrong.
But, the central lesson of special relativity is *there is no absolute frame*. All three velocities are on an equal footing, and which v you use depends on which frame is relevant for the problem you are trying to solve. So if you accept the central lesson of relativity, there is no problem at all.
"What is the - sign in the Lorentz factor? If it applies to the direction of the observer relative to the incoming light, then it means we can also have length dilation for a + sign and time contraction for a + sign apart from the contradiction that the observer's frame of motion then becomes capable of influencing whether it is contraction or dilation that happens."
No, you have misunderstood the significance of the sign. It cannot refer to the direction of relative motion because the sign stands in front of a squared quantity, so whether the quantity itself is positive or negative, the square will always be positive. If you want to understand the fundamental significance of the minus sign, I can only refer you to my old paper in which I derived the invariance of the speed of light.
http://deepblue.lib.umich.edu/handle/2027.42/83152
Look at Axiom I and divide by c. What you should hopefully realize is that the significance of the minus sign is that every spacetime object is associated with c, which depending on the frame is distributed over motion in space and "motion in time", better known as "aging".
To sum up, what I perceive here is negative feedback loop. There are aspects of SR that are distasteful to your philosophical prejudices, and which prevent you from understanding what the theory is really saying. This leads to misunderstandings which in turn seem to confirm your prior prejudices. I really don't know how this cycle can be broken except if you really take the time to really understand the theory, even if only for the sake of trying to mount stronger arguments against it.
Hope this helps.
Best,
Armin