Bell's Theory of Beables and the Concept of `Universe' by Ian Durham

Ian,

I won't comment or question as you seem to have disengaged and left many good ones above unanswered so it seems pointless.

Shame.

Richard.

Hi Ian,

I'd hoped you'd answer mine, and the only other one seems to be Gordon Watson's. Richard was one of the few who made the effort to follow and check out the classical QM derivation and agreed it. Declan Traill's plot shows the correlations are correct with loophole closed, so the mechanism explains the low intensity geometry inadequate to trigger 'clicks' in terms of the minor axis of highly elliptical 'polarity'.

But Richard's not a full time professional in the field like yourself so your own unencumbered analysis would be greatly appreciated.

How familiar are you with the spin stats theorem SST? You'll probably know what I learned; that in the SST the SO(1,3) group can be decomposed into the direct product of two different SU(2) subgroups. The Lie algebras of the two different groups can be exchanged by hermitean conjugation. This implies that one SU(2) group is left handed and the other is right-handed. Also the Dirac spinor we're so fond of is actually a left-handed spinor stacked on top of a right-handed spinor (a 4-component spinor). The stacked spinors can be exchanged by hermitian conjugation.

One of the spinor representations (let's say the left-handed one) corresponds to a matter particle. The other (conjugate) representation corresponds to an antimatter particle. The Dirac equation is nothing more than a projection operator which projects out either the upper spinor or the lower one.

None of that is needed for the derivation ontology & mechanism and it's incomplete anyway, but can you see how it all corresponds?

All shocking I know, but now you've had a couple of weeks to get used to the new way of looking. Heisenberg 'position' was only a guess as 'momentum' seemed to have been 'taken', but that really means more 'orbital' position, which is the the 2nd orthogonal momentum. I can't recall; Did you see the non integer spin derivation & video?

Very Best

Peter

Finally it was an ox, and the mathematician, the economist, and

the logician were all wrong.... ;-)

Quantum mechanics is a theory about quantum motion. Measurements would be explained by the theory.

Bells' beables aren't really needed or useful, and several of his definitions only add confusion to a topic which already has a good amount of it.

Indeed the universe is colloquially "the totality of everything that

exists". There is no problem with the idea of multiple 'universes'; they would be simply regions of the real universe. The problem here is on Everettians that want to change the meaning of universe to pretend that there are many.

The operational definition confounds the universe with the observable universe.

Defining the universe based in a based on a wavefunction is wrong. First because wavefunction is a definition of a state of an object not the object. Second, because wavefunctions only can describe some quantum states. And using wavefunctions associated to the WdW equation even adds more problems, because the equation is wrong, as even one of his authors admitted.

"IS THE UNIVERSE FUNDAMENTAL?" No. The universe is a collection of particles.

Ian,

My Feb 24 post outlines the classical mechanism in the essay.

I'm saying that if we start with the Maxwell/(Poincare Sphere) 4 momenta state for electrons and the pairs (rather than 'no' assumption or superposed 'singlet' states) then with a simple momentum transfer ('measurement') mechanism, the entire tranche of QM predictions and findings can be reproduced with classical mechanics & modern photonics.

As a good scientist I'm sure you won't let shock or cognitive dissonance make you dismiss the concept or run and hide. The computer plot confirms the result, so the question is, as an expert, can you identify where the mechanism may be 'wrong' or what it 'misses'?

The key to EPR resolution is that A,B polariser field directions are reversible, and the 'measurement' on interaction is either 'SAME' or 'OPPOSITE' vector (then an amplitude pair subject to y,z axis ellipticity on orthogonal axes).

So if we have A,B +,-, either can reverse setting angle to get A,B +,+ or -,-. Cos distributions are implicit in the Poincare sphere (as I show), applied a 2nd time at the photomultiplier. In between +1,-1 are then Bayesian distributions, so 'undecidable' at 90o.

So beyond a local interference range NO 'action at a distance' is required to explain the outcomes!!

This is such a leap of understanding it needs an acknowledged expert to either falsify or confirm it. Not that difficult a task!

Very best

Peter

PS Do contact me direct, on; pj.ukc.edu@physics.org

Dear Ian; further to my earlier comments, please: Since we cannot both be right, would you mind commenting on my half-page refutation of Bell's theorem?

See ¶13 in More realistic fundamentals: quantum theory from one premiss.

NB: I clarify Bell's 1964-(1) functions by allowing that, pairwise, the HV (λ) heading toward Alice need no be the same as that (μ) heading toward Bob; ie, it is sufficient that they are highly correlated via the pairwise conservation of total angular momentum. Thus, consistent with Bell's 1964-(12) normalization condition:

[math]\int\!d\boldsymbol{\lambda}\:\rho(\boldsymbol{\lambda})=\int\!d\boldsymbol{\mu}\:\rho(\boldsymbol{\mu})=1.\;\;\;(1)[/math]

Further, in my analysis: after leaving the source, each pristine particle remains pristine until its interaction with a polarizer. Then, in that I allow for perturbative interactions, my use of delta-functions represents the perturbative impact of each such interaction.

My equation (26) then represents the distribution of perturbed particles proceeding to Alice's analyzer. Thus (with b and μ similarly for Bob):

[math]\int\!d\lambda\;\rho(\lambda)_{Alice}=\tfrac{1}{2}\int\!d\,\lambda[\delta\;(\lambda\sim a^{+})+\delta\,(\lambda\sim a^{-})]=1.\;\;\;(2)[/math]

PS: Bridging the continuous and the discrete -- and thus Bell's related indifference -- integrals are used here by me for generality. Then, since the arguments of Bell's 1964-(1) functions include a continuous variable λ, ρ(λ) in Bell 1964-(2) must include delta-functions. Thus, under Bell's terms, my refutation is both mathematically and physically significant.

PLEASE: When you reply -- or if you will not -- please drop a note on my essay-thread so that I receive an alert. Many thanks; Gordon

Current FQXi essay

Dear Ian,

Congratulations of your success in the essay contest!

Is it too much for me to now hope that this success has bought you some time to defend your view re Bell against my own: so that my essay-writing might improve?

For, in the context of EPRB, Bell believed: "In a theory in which parameters are added to quantum mechanics to determine the results of individual measurements, without changing the statistical predictions, there must be a mechanism whereby the setting of one measuring device can influence the reading of another instrument, however remote. Moreover, the signal involved must propagate instantaneously, so that such a theory could not be Lorentz invariant." Subsequently, by his own admission, he lived with the unresolved dilemma of AAD: yes or no.

In my Lorentz-invariant theory -- and in the context of EPRB -- I bring local (non-contextual) hidden-variables to quantum mechanics to determine the results of individual measurements without changing the statistical predictions. So it seems to me that AAD and well-known Bellian inequalities and claims are thereby refuted.

With my best regards, please let me know if you'll not be critiquing my view; Gordon