Dear Emily, thank you for a very creative, well-argued and provoking essay. Although quite speculative, the ideas you introduce are remarkable and perhaps could help to oppose some form of scientific reductionism and take into serious account the possibility of more "holisitic" (in the sense of inputting the whole history of the Universe), as you say: "Insisting that all theories should take
a predictive form from the start places an unnecessary and unjustified constraint on the space of possible theories, and by removing that constraint we will probably be able to do better physics".
I also highly appreciated your general challenge, expecially when you write: "All of this amounts to a fundamental failure to distinguish between the laws of nature that scientists write down and the laws of nature that actually govern reality".
I have then some more to-the-point comments.
When you assert:
"Why do we assume that the universe can only take information about the past into account when deciding on measurement outcomes? Well, there are obvious social and historic reasons." Ithink this statement is quite strong. I understand that your aim here is to redefine the scope of science, but in my opinion science has been conceived, or invented if you want, to explain/understand and predict. You would like to relax the latter feature. Yet, in my opinion, there is more than a mere social-histioical reasons to this. It seems that the past leaves traces and that the future does not, for this asymmetry of "memories" (see e.g., https://arxiv.org/abs/2003.06687). This reason seems to be the actual cause of the predictive character of laws to me. We can surely question whether this asymmetry is fundamental in mature or if it is a fundamental limit of humans, but my point is that is not an arbitrary social construct.
About quantum mechanics, you write that the mechanism for probabilistic predictions is usually considered to be "objective chance". I don't think this is the case in the community of quantum foundations, for the propensity interpretation has hardly any supporters these days. On this note, I don't understand the following statement: "However the idea of quantum probabilities as propensities should raise red flags, because quantum systems don't have psychological states and therefore they can't actually have inclinations." What has this to do with propensities? The fact thet they are called 'propensities' or 'tendencies' should not mislead us towards any psychological state. Propensities are supposed to be objective properties, of the same kind of fragility. You need not to through on the ground a vase of fine crystal to know that (due to it composition and thus to its property of pragility) that there will be a high chance for it to break.
I wish you the best of luck for the contest!
Cheers,
Flavio