[deleted]
Dear Ray,
I see you are not only repeating the same arguments as I have addressed before, but you are also repeating the same posts that you have in other forums. This puts me in the uncomfortable position of having to pick up after your droppings here and there.
Let me try once again:
1)The derivation of Planck's Law in my essay does not depend on any physical properties of bosons, fermions or anything else in fact. It is a purely mathematical tautology. Think of it like the Pythagorean Theorem.
2)What Planck's Law says (as is derived in my essay) is that if we know ΔE and if we know Eav over an interval [t0 , t], then using the formula we can exactly calculate E0 .
Now Ray, the E and t in all this can be anything! The application of this to Physics is for E to be energy and t to be time. Then the formula describes the relationship between E0 , and the energy ΔE absorbed at an average energy Eav .
In other words, Planck's Formula is an exact mathematical tautology that describes the interaction of measurement. This, I argue explains why the experimental blackbody spectrum is so indistinguishable from the theoretical curve obtained from Planck's Law.
Everything in my essay can be easily understood using simple mathematics and clear logic. But you can always muddle the arguments by looking at this through the prison of your theories. I am not in a position (not professional enough) to "analyze this" !
But if you want to describe what I actually say, please do it accurately and don't leave misleading comments in other forums.
Constantinos