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LC,
I am perhaps the first one who sees argues that both x and t are not as physically real in the sense of measurable as are r and elapsed time t_e. Only The latter have natural zeros. You are perhaps quite right in that both the Parmesidean and what is not quite correctly labeled Heraclitean perspectives are related to each other by a non-commutative relationship. My essay 833 tries to explain why both views are redundant: Obedience of the natural restriction to exclusively positive distance and exclusively realized temporal distance is the key to the commutativity of half-matrices instead of Hermitean symmetry, i.e., instead of Heaviside's split into real and fictitious imaginary part. In order to get most easily understood I remind of distance matrices between cities. If distance between NY and SF is the same as between SF and NY then one merely needs a half-matrix.
Look at Fig. 1 in my 833 essay. Both measurable time t_e and frequency f are always positive. See hyperbolas of the quanta delta t_e times delta f = const.
Don't worry: Frequency corresponds to energy or momentum with respect to the object of concern while elapsed time corresponds to distance from object of concern.
Given I guessed correctly when you wrote: "This would work our in an interesting way" and "I could mean" you meant out instead of our and It instead of I. Nonetheless, I cannot understand you. Doesn't block time contradict human experience? Why is non-block time no time? Didn't I clearly enough explain why the basic notion of time is the only measurable (unilateral and perhaps potentially infinite) elapsed time?
Regards,
Eckard