Well, I won't try to comment on your approach, given that there is obviously not room to explicate it properly, and in any case it is not directly relevant to my paper.
There is quite a bit I did not specify in my paper, as it is a less-than-9-page introduction to something that takes hundreds of pages to present!
But to your questions: Yes, by my definitions, y=0 is indeed a neighborhood of (0,0) in that set, and that does completely align with my intuitions. Any continuous line that arrives a (0,0) has a segment in y = 0. In that sense, which is the only obvious one, the set of points y=0 completely surrounds (0,0) in that set, which is what we want a neighborhood to do. You seem to think that it is a problem that my definitions yield different results than the standard ones. In this case, mine in the more intuitive. As for Cantor sets, neither I nor anyone else has any real intuitions about them, so it is hard to argue that any result about them is either good or bad.
I should also note that you simply repeat certain properties of the standard definition as if they are desirable but without any argument. This is particularly the case with pre-images. The most natural thing is to define properties of functions by the geometrical characteristics that they preserve under their action: that is, the geometrical characteristics of the domain that are preserved in the range. The whole idea of looking at what is preserved backwards, i.e. by the pre-images. is just strange. You are used to it because it is what has been done, but it is just peculiar.
There are lots of differences between my definitions and the standard ones. You seem to think that these differences are per se objectionable. But there is no argument to that effect.
I am also a bit mystified by your assertion that you do not need to check my book to see how I have defined things. Are you psychic?