Dear Armin,

You commented upon my paper so early in the process that I've been under the impression that I had read your essay and commented on it. I see that is not the case. As you've recently returned to offer valuable suggestions, I thank you for those and offer my views on your essay.

You begin by extolling the freedom to choose one's starting assumptions as a great virtue of mathematics, limited only by consistency. You then note that the ZFC is generally regarded today as the foundation of mathematics, yet it is not known with absolute certainty that it is itself consistent.

Your own contribution, which you label tentative, is based in "free logic" which, as I understand it, deals with the context of potentiality 'surrounding' the inner logic of things that 'exist', with the key operators being: 'Possibly', 'Actually', and 'Necessarily'. Based on these you formulate the Axis of Default Specification intended to extend the ZFC to handle "incompleteness".

Your first example is designed to illustrate the use of these terms leading to an "emergence specification" which

"Collapses" the superposition of actualizability to permit the emergence of the actual element,"

which of course is the relation to the "quantum mechanics" in the title of your essay, and you say

"The measure associated with the "collapse" of actualizability ... is ... probability."

You then discuss contextuality in the context of the Peres-Mermin Magic Square which [as I understand it] is a special case of Peres table 6-1 [page 167] of 'Actual and hypothetical outcomes of N quantum tests", in which he claims that none of the possible 'filled in tables' obey the cosine correlation. He then [page 197] proves the Kochen-Specker theorem using 33 vectors in R^3.

You note "the quantum mechanical situation invoking commuting spin operators" involves e-specs. As I develop these operators in my endnotes [and in more detail in my reference [2]] it is clear that this idealization of spin as a 'qubit' or two-state system leads to non-intuitive results and much of the mysticism of QM is traceable to this idealization.

As QM is based on analysis of outputs, and a "good" experiment is generally one with discrete output states, the apparent fact that all measurements based on constant magnetic field tend to satisfy this "two-state" requirement is, in some respects, a "self-licking ice cream cone".

My essay, of course, asks what happens when this overly simple characterization of spin is loosened. You recall that "the quantum state is a superposition state" which is also fascinating, given Matt Leifer's contention (also quoted in my endnotes) that, in 2015, we don't know what a quantum state is, whether it is ontological or epistemological. Yet, in our math formulas, we are free to superimpose whatever they are! And then to talk about the "collapse" of the superposition.

You state the current consensus, that "the quantum correlations between the particles go beyond what is possible in any classical arrangement, and this was proven in a theorem by Bell."

Of course my essay claims that Bell's "proof" is a mathematio-logical proof based on over-simplified physics. Even his basic model, before getting into the proof, is contradictory, as he assumes a constant field which yields zero, while he requires ±1 results. But you know this.

In short, given the false conclusions (in my opinion) of the Bell theorem, you have performed an admirable analysis of the logic necessary to support or explain these false conclusions.

You comment on my thread that to seriously consider my argument, one must be willing to question the 90 year interpretation of Stern-Gerlach. Yes indeed. The current state of confusion in quantum mechanics is such that, if after almost a century the early ideas have not yet led to clarity [I don't consider Kochen-Specker's 33-ray proof in any way 'clear', with respect to physical reality] it may well be time to revisit both the experiments, with century newer technology, and the early ideas and concepts of spin -- essentially unchanged since Goudsmit and Uhlenbeck.

Finally, as you end your essay with a discussion of the Feynman path integral, the basis of which is the progression from state n-1 to state n [see your theorem, post equation 6 on page 8] I would call your attention to the second diagram on page 10 in my essay which links the generalized automata-representation I develop in The Automatic Theory of Physics to a Feynman quantum field theory kernel, and show the equivalence of the "next-state-address" in the automata to "potential" in standard physics. This is a novel identification that you may or may not find interesting.

My very best regards,

Edwin Eugene Klingman

Hello Armin,

I smell a 'dialectic' bait meant to entrap me and I am in a dilemma whether to swallow the bait or not :)

I was therefore forced to Google "wavelength" and came up with these:

*Wavelength is the distance between identical points in the adjacent cycles of a waveform signal propagated in space or along a wire.

*In physics, the wavelength of a sinusoidal wave is the spatial period of the wave-- the distance over which the wave's shape repeats,[1] and the inverse of the spatial frequency.

Asking whether I hold this definition to be exact or not will certainly take us into debate whether light is wave or particle or both. It would also take us into whether a medium of propagation is present or not. While not shying away from debating those contentious territories, it would becloud the fundamental basis for the validity of SR where we started this discussion from. To repeat;

Einstein himself says, "But ALL experiments (without exception) have shown that... optical phenomena, relatively to the earth as the body of reference, ARE NOT influenced by the translational velocity of the earth...". Do you agree?

Now, if your only condition to answer the question is my response, then I confirm that to almost all intents and purposes I hold the definition to be exact!

Regards,

Akinbo

*In addition to the links on this thread, I thought I linked Herbert Dingle's book but I obviously must have done so elsewhere. SCIENCE At the Crossroads. Read these links critically and you will understand my excitement about photon existence paradox and the lack of interest by the establishment in your paradox.

Hi Akinbo,

Thanks for your reply, the other definitions of wavelength you gave above will do just as well. Now, just one more question: do you accept the non-commutation relations of quantum mechanics (or, equivalently, the Heisenberg uncertainty principle)? Note that if you don't, then that means that you reject QM.

Best,

Armin

Armin,

You are a veritable and formidable opponent. Perhaps, you should have been invited to Copenhagen when Bohr and Einstein were debating...

I cannot swallow what non-commutation relations of QM, to the extent that QM is valid ONLY IF special relativity is valid. So yes, I reject the version of QM that is founded on SR. The experimental successes of QM must therefore have alternative explanations. There can be more than one explanation for an experimental result with one of them being the eventually correct answer.

Read, Pentcho's latest post on Faster than Light concerning what the postulate of SR we are finding contentious means.

Regards,

Akinbo

Dear Akinbo,

Thank you for your response. If I understand you correctly, you say that you reject any parts of quantum mechanics that are founded on special relativity, but you left it open whether you accept those parts that are not founded on SR. I can assure you that on the currently accepted view the non-commutation relations (or equivalently, the Heisenberg uncertainty principle) have absolutely nothing to do with SR. So, do you accept them or not? (I remind you that these lie at the heart of QM, so if you reject them, you are not just rejecting parts of QM, but all of it.)

Best,

Armin

Dear Gordon,

Thank you for your explanation. I think you have misinterpreted Bohr's statement. At any rate, that doesn't matter, because what is relevant is whether your view and mine agree, and unfortunately, it seems that there are some major differences. It already begins with your statement: "if I send you a randomly polarised particle..."

I thought from my essay it would have been obvious that I am pursuing the interpretation according to which there is no particle before the measurement event. And if there is no particle, there is no particle property (which I believe is what Bohr's statement amounts to). There is nothing that is polarised, whether randomly or not.

From my point of view, the particle "comes into existence" as an actual spacetime object upon the interaction with the apparatus we call a "measurement", and the state of the actual spacetime system during the measurement (particle plus apparatus) is determined by the relative contribution of all the actualizabilities associated with the underlying object described by the incomplete spacetime vector, and these contributions map the actualizabilities to the concept of a probability amplitude.

So, to see whether our views agree, you need to just answer this question: In these correlation experiments, are there according to your theory particles between measurements or not? My impression is that there are, and this would be consistent with the fact that you call your theory "realist". However, it would be inconsistent with what I am working on.

Best wishes,

Armin

Dear Edwin,

Thank you for your comments, let me just give a few clarifications on your summary of my ideas.

1. My framework is based on a combination of free logic and modal logic, however, I am looking into ways of simplifying it so that possibly only one kind of extension of classical logic is needed.

2. Your comparison between the states in 2-D Hilbert Space and the "self-licking ice cone" is funny, but I think it understates the fact that it is already capable of modeling classically highly unexpected behaviors, and yes, I am thinking of the sequential SG experiments with B-fields aligned along different axes. I know that you deny that the actual experiment is modeled by it, but this does not take anything away from the fact that, as a model, it makes non-trivial non-classical predictions and serves as an excellent way for understanding higher-dimensional Hilbert Spaces.

3. I think Matt Leifer's claim about the quantum state was not about wondering whether it is a superposition state or not, but about wondering about its ontological status.

4. The theorem that connects my ideas to the path integral was the center-piece of the essay. In my opinion, there are nowadays so many reformulations of quantum mechanics that it has become a veritable cottage industry, and the problem which, as far as I know, most if not all seem to have in common is that they don't make it any clearer what is "really" going on. I like to think that my model does. Although I don't know anything about your automatic physics, if it is based on automata, then the first question I would have is what objects in the real world these automata correspond to. Without this information, it would seem like it is just another "black box" reformulation.

Thank you again for taking the time to write your comments.

Best wishes,

Armin

  • [deleted]

Dear Jon,

Thank you for your comments and for your questions. I will try to answer them as best as I can. Keep in mind that I have not yet completely worked out everything, but I like to think that I am close.

"Do you think in your model where you consider a quantum 2-D object which has the potential to become a 3-D object (instead of a 3-D object with one dimension consisting of every possible value) you could still account for interference patterns as seen in the double slit experiment?"

The mathematical model alone cannot do this because it doesn't explain 1) where the phase factor comes from and 2) How the double slit potential is to be modeled.

However, if you combine the mathematical model with the physical model I presented at my talk in Vaxjo, then I believe it is in principle possible because the physical model supplies basis from which one can get both: The phase factor comes out of a postulated mechanism that compares the passage of time in areatime to the passage of time in spacetime, and the potential corresponds to where you set your point of origin in the abstract plane formed out of the two proper times. I say "in principle" because I have not yet performed the calculation, as I have been still focused on much more basic issues in my framework.

"Have you seen Stephen Wolfram's work where he talks about enumerating different axiom systems and showing what theorems are provable under each?"

No, I was unaware of Wolfram's work in this area. I just read the linked talk and found it very interesting. Essentially, it appears he has taken this idea of exploiting the freedom of choosing axioms several steps further. I think that this work has the potential to be very useful in mathematics, but because the space of possible axioms is infinite, you will still need something like imagination to pick out the most useful ones. Reading his talk made me wonder whether it will ever be able to simulate imagination in machines. I think that would be both a profoundly exhilarating and terrifying prospect. HAL had imagination.

"There's a lot of overlap in what theorems are provable in each consistent axiom system, but there are still some differences. How do you think this relates to your view that the "freedom to choose one's axioms coupled with the requirement of consistency should naturally lead us to expect mathematics to be unreasonably effective in modeling reality, but that this unreasonable effectiveness only exists, as it were, as an actualizability until human imagination transforms (parts of) mathematics into an actually effective model of reality."?"

Remember, we are talking about modeling nature, that is, we are talking about something within the realm of physics. As a physicist, I really don't care that much which axiom system to use as long as it serves as a foundation that gives me the desired model of the world that has the qualities that I desire: Above all, predictions that match real world observations, but also conceptual clarity, relative simplicity of the calculations, and some elegance wouldn't hurt either. Most physics models are several layers separated from the axiomatic foundation of mathematics. In that sense, I would say my work is atypical. But that is the direct result of trying to incorporate a new distinction into mathematics which beyond the level of logic, and possibly some poorly explored models of set theory simply didn't exist. I must admit that until about 1.5 years ago, when I first started the effort of learning about these formal systems, I was not all that interested in mathematics for its own sake.

"You talk of ZFC (and your ZFCD)... Do you think the axiom of choice is reasonable axiom in a system that contains real numbers which are uncomputable?"

Well, I can live with non-constructive proofs, and I can live with the Banach-Tarski paradox. I think my pragmatic physicist side is showing its side when I admit that I prefer a more powerful formal system over a less powerful one, even if, as a side effect, it proves to be sometimes "too powerful" because it allows you to derive highly non-intuitive results. The cap on this is of course provided by consistency. I don't want a system that is so "powerful" that you can prove literally anything at all. Incidentally, I am certain that once the formal system I am working out is complete, there will be highly counterintuitive implications lurking in the background, waiting to be discovered.

"How could one actually choose one of these uncomputable reals, if they cannot be specified in a finite way."

Actually, Wolfram's work to which you pointed me might be a possible way to do it. If Wolfram's system could be used to enumerate many different very similar but not identical set theoretic models based on the enumerated axiom system, perhaps it might be possible to devise an algorithm which chooses the model in which you can approximate the number to the desired level of precision. The analogy that pops into my mind is that of traditional musicians and filmmakers, who use notes and individual frames, respectively, as a their basic building blocks, whereas "mash-up artists" use entire blocks of these as their basic building blocks.

"Maybe this is where your thoughts on "imagination" comes in? "

Most definitely, I believe devising any sort of algorithm from scratch for a particular purpose requires at least a modicum of imagination.

"Also, is ZFCD trying to be a meta-mathematical theory that tries to explore the ramifications of an incomplete system being consistently extended, from a general perspective?"

I don't think so. ZFCD is a set-theoretical model, and all the relevant propositions pertaining to incomplete systems are made within it, where I assume by "incomplete system" you mean objects such as incomplete pairs etc. However, ZFCD may well have metamathematical (as well as metaphysical) implications, because the lintroduction of the formal distinction between actuality and potentiality into established mathematics is (at least in my totally biased opinion) a very important and largely unexplored area.

"Is what you describe as "pro-actually" a form of determinism, where what you define as "actualizably" a more probabilistic view of the future?"

Well, you have the right idea, but I wouldn't put it quite that way. I would say, as a conjecture, a world is deterministic iff in this world every actualizability at every moment is a proactuality. Actualizability is the more general concept which captures the ontological distinction; pro-actuality is a more specific concept which applies it to the context where the actualizability could most easily be confused for actuality. For instance, someone thinking that measuring some property of one of an entangled pair of particles causes the other to "have" the corresponding property at that moment reflects, in my opinion, such confusion.

"How would you view the question of whether a 10,000 digit number was prime or not from this perspective?"

As you asked it, without any further qualification, I would interpret the question to ask about an actuality because numbers, without further qualification, are abstractions of objects in the inner domain. If you had asked me "suppose this number was in the outer domain", then my answer would be that you are asking about a proactuality, because numbers in the outer domain are abstractions of objects in the outer domain, and no elements of the outer domain are "actual".

"Is this related to the idea that something may be considered probabilistic until a proper fully-predictive theory is found?"

No, I meant to simply point out that what distinguishes probability from non-probabilistic measures is this aspect of "coming into existence" that the others lack. As you know, Kolmogorov's axioms are not sufficient to capture the concept of probability. There is no way you can conceptually frame a unit length or a unit mass as a measure of "coming into existence". But that is not the fault of probability theory, because it just works with the sets that it is given by the set theoretical model. That is why I think that the outer domain is an important addition to set theory: It is exactly the home of the probability measure. The claim that "something may be considered probabilistic until a proper fully-predictive theory is found" strikes me as far too metaphysical for mathematics.

Is it related to the mathematical fact that we don't know if we are up against a true and unprovable statement or if we just haven't done enough searching to find a proof?

This is a great question. Although the "coming into existence" could refer merely to one's certainty of belief, I am at this point only treating probability in an objectivist manner. And from an objectivist point of view, it seems to me that it is already a matter of fact whether a statement is true but unprovable, or whether it can be proved in finite time. And that means that if the proof exists, it is already determined to be a pro-actuality (ignoring facts of reality that the computers could catch fire, or that in a few billions years our planet will be destroyed etc.), and if it doesn't exist, then it is already a matter of fact that it doesn't.

"Is something that is undecidable, probabilistic from this point of view?"

I assume you are referring to undecidability within the context of propositions. I suspect there is more than one way of relating this sort of undecidability to my framework, and for this reason I am not quite sure. However, I think if one really set out to relate undecidability to probability in it, then it would be possible to do, but that would lead to a very unfamiliar conception of probability. On the other hand, there is much that is not well understood about probability. Who knows if we have really exhausted all the possible meanings it could have?

"Are you familiar with Gregory Chaitin's omega constant?"

I was not familiar with it, and even after reading the wikipedia article, I do not have a good intuition for it.

"I think you might have some interest in some of the questions I posed at the end of my essay. Somehow many of them seem very relevant to your work. Please consider taking a crack at answering one of them."

OK, you asked:"If quantum mechanics is a world where things can be both "yes" and "no" at the same time, should experimental results be analyzed with Zen Koans instead of logical inferences?"

I would say that it is not the case that "quantum mechanics is a world where things can be both yes and no at the same time" but rather that within the domain of objects described by quantum mechanics, there are simply no things with actual properties describable in terms of "yes" and "no" until they are "measured". Zen Koans, I think, while often bringing home illuminating insights, do not seem very efficient (or even workable) as deductive systems to me (but then, I know very little about them).

I like the question in particular because it demonstrates how the confusion between actuality and actualizability can create a much more pervasive confusion in our worldview. If I had a fair coin in my hand, not yet flipped, and you asked me "is the outcome the flip heads?" and I suffered from the same confusion with respect to actuality and actualizability, of course I would say "Yes and no". Since we know what is really going on, does that not seem silly?

Thank you again for your questions.

Best,

Armin

Dear Armin,

It appears we are leaving substance and now chasing shadows. The simple question I asked has been left unanswered or answered with other questions. If I may repeat:

Given a light source, e.g. a pulsar say 10^3 light seconds away, and sending out pulses once every 60 seconds, such that the moment a pulse is detected, another is already emitted and on on its way and would be detected also after 60 seconds. So we have regular detections every 60 seconds. Now if, on detecting a pulse, the observer moves towards the next incoming pulse, can he reduce the detection time to 59 seconds? Again, if on detection, the observer moves away from the already incoming and in-flight photon, can he delay the detection time to 61 seconds? Or does the detection time always remain 60 seconds no matter whatever manouevre or motion the observer makes. In the Einstein quote above, the motion of the observer will not have any effect on optical phenomena.

Regards,

Akinbo

As an aside, check out the Sagnac experiment if you have not encountered it before and compare with the M-M experiment. Also check the latest experimental finding concerning light speed in vacuum (as posted by Pentcho today on the Faster than Light blog)

This is getting curiouser and curiouser.

"I thought from my essay it would have been obvious that I am pursuing the interpretation according to which there is no particle before the measurement event"

Sounds like, the Moon is not there when nobody is looking.

Regards,

Akinbo

Dear Akinbo,

"This is getting curiouser and curiouser."

Did you read section 6? If you did, you might want to take another look. If there is something that is not clear, I' be happy to answer any questions.

"Sounds like, the Moon is not there when nobody is looking."

Can we agree that the moon may be a tad different from an elementary particle, or, for that matter, a molecule? Specifically, you can associate space-time vectors with any location in or on the moon. So, I would not worry about whether the moon is still there when nobody is looking.

Best,

Armin

Dear Akinbo,

"It appears we are leaving substance and now chasing shadows."

I don't know what you are referring to. Looking back at the last 7 posts, all I see is that I asked two simple "Yes" or "No" questions, which my "opponent wriggles and wreathes" to avoid giving a straight answer to;)

What is so difficult about answering my question whether you accept the non-commutativity relations of QM (or, equivalently, the Heisenberg Uncertainty principle)?

"Given a light source, e.g. a pulsar say 10^3 light seconds away, and sending out pulses once every 60 seconds, such that the moment a pulse is detected, another is already emitted and on on its way and would be detected also after 60 seconds. So we have regular detections every 60 seconds. Now if, on detecting a pulse, the observer moves towards the next incoming pulse, can he reduce the detection time to 59 seconds? Again, if on detection, the observer moves away from the already incoming and in-flight photon, can he delay the detection time to 61 seconds? Or does the detection time always remain 60 seconds no matter whatever manouevre or motion the observer makes. In the Einstein quote above, the motion of the observer will not have any effect on optical phenomena."

Yes, I promise I will answer this, but could you please humor me, and give me a simple yes or no answer to mine?

Thanks,

Armin

Armin,

Let me humor you with a NO answer.

References (not the best I can lay hands on now, there is a recent experiment I can't readily locate now)...

Violation of Heisenberg's Measurement-Disturbance Relationship by Weak Measurements

Experimental realization of Popper's Experiment: Violation of the Uncertainty Principle?

Particle Measurement Sidesteps the Uncertainty Principle

Scientists Now Uncertain About Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

In summary, Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is a useful conjecture not a law or principle. I have rubbed your back. Now rub mine :)

Regards,

Akinbo

4 days later

Hi Armin -

A very interesting and clearly written essay. I recognized your "default specification axiom" from your 2013 FQXi paper, and I agree that a crucial step toward making quantum theory make sense is to learn how to imagine a world in which possibility plays a fundamental role.

I was struck by your statement that "the state of early 21st century mathematics is such that everything represented by mathematics is represented as an actuality." My knowledge of math is too rudimentary for me to know if that's true, or to judge how well your new logic remedies the situation. But it's clear that our philosophical tradition has always treated the given actuality of things as basic, while possibility has been understood mainly as a kind of defective actuality, as what might actually exist but in fact doesn't.

I've been thinking about this while reading Ruth Kastner's book on the Transactional Interpretation of QM, subtitled "The Reality of Possibility". Your treatment of the Born rule in terms of time-symmetry reminded me of her theory, which describes a sub-spacetime realm of possible interaction underlying the actually observed events of our world. Though I think her interpretation is excellent as far as it goes, it still conceives possibility only as what's potentially actualizable. I think this misses something essential about the way possibility works in QM, and it may be that this same limitation applies to the approach you have in progress.

The key for me is that possibilities don't "just exist" in the world; it takes very special kinds of situations to make things possible. I wasn't clear exactly what role "context" plays in your logic, but since you treat it as a "sample space" for measurement, I gather you have in mind the "entire measurement arrangement" that has to be taken into account in writing the wave-function for a system. Kastner's approach, like many others, just takes it for granted that such situations exist, i.e. that it's physically possible to make observations. The focus of my current essay, and also my 2013 FQXi essay, is on what's required in the mathematical structure of physics to do this - to create situations where specific outcomes are physically meaningful, which then contribute to setting up new contexts where new outcomes become possible. The argument is that a number of essentially different kinds of structure are needed for this, as reflected in the remarkably diverse set of physical parameters we need to describe our world. describe our world.

I hope your project meets with great success... it's not so common that imagination is combined with such clear thinking.

Thanks - Conrad

    Dear Mr. Shirazi,

    I have no wish to be disrespectful to you or to your essay, but I think abstract mathematics and abstract physics have nothing to do with how the real Universe is occurring for the following real reason:

    Do let me know what you think about this: This is my single unified theorem of how the real Universe is occurring: Newton was wrong about abstract gravity; Einstein was wrong about abstract space/time, and Hawking was wrong about the explosive capability of abstract NOTHING. Proof exists that every real astronomer looking through a real telescope has failed to notice that each of the real galaxies he has observed is unique as to its structure and its perceived distance from all other real galaxies. Each real star is unique as to its structure and its perceived distance apart from all other real stars. Every real scientist who has peered at real snowflakes through a real microscope has concluded that each real snowflake is unique as to its structure. Real structure is unique, once. Unique, once does not consist of abstract amounts of abstract quanta. Based on one's normal observation, one must conclude that all of the stars, all of the planets, all of the asteroids, all of the comets, all of the meteors, all of the specks of astral dust and all real objects have only one real thing in common. Each real object has a real material surface that seems to be attached to a material sub-surface. All surfaces, no matter the apparent degree of separation, must travel at the same constant speed. No matter in which direction one looks, one will only ever see a plethora of real surfaces and those surfaces must all be traveling at the same constant speed or else it would be physically impossible for one to observe them instantly and simultaneously. Real surfaces are easy to spot because they are well lighted. Real light does not travel far from its source as can be confirmed by looking at the real stars, or a real lightning bolt. Reflected light needs to adhere to a surface in order for it to be observed, which means that real light cannot have a surface of its own. Real light must be the only stationary substance in the real Universe. The stars remain in place due to astral radiation. The planets orbit because of atmospheric accumulation. There is no space.

    Warm regards,

    Joe Fisher

    Dear Conrad,

    Thank you very much for your feedback on my essay. Allow me to comment on some of the things you wrote:

    "I recognized your "default specification axiom" from your 2013 FQXi paper, and I agree that a crucial step toward making quantum theory make sense is to learn how to imagine a world in which possibility plays a fundamental role."

    Yes, but note that when I wrote my 2013 paper, I still had only an understanding at a conceptual level about how the default specification principle applies to quantum mechanics. It took me to focus for the last 1.5 years on the foundations of mathematics before I could begin to grasp how to incorporate it at a formal level, and that project is not yet complete (the technical paper is still awaiting completion).

    "I was struck by your statement that "the state of early 21st century mathematics is such that everything represented by mathematics is represented as an actuality.""

    Indeed, isn't that surprising? I have consulted with a few mathematicians on this, and, as far as I know, there are only two areas of mathematics which come close to being, but are not quite, exceptions to that claim.

    The first area is what appears to me to be a very poorly developed field called "modal set theory" (of which ZFCD would be considered a new example). To my best knowledge, the motivation for introducing the modality of "possibility" into set theory has so far been always to help address the problem of completed infinities in set theory. There are mathematicians and philosophers of mathematics who would rather expel this notion out of the current foundations of mathematics, and an appealing way of doing it is to introduce this modality specifically so that it applies to infinite sets (or, presumably, any set which is "too large" for the more standard set theories), thereby keeping the metaphysical status of all such sets in mathematics as uncompleted entities. As you now know, I think that this sort of modality has a much more important and extensive role to play in mathematics, which is at this time largely unexplored.

    The reason I feel that previous formulations of modal set theory do not constitute an exception to my claim is that, although I did not expressly say this, my claim was meant to apply to finite objects represented by mathematics. The whole issue of infinities in physics, in particular, is a subject that I would bracket off as an area onto itself, subject to its own considerations.

    The second area is probability theory. But even there, the glaring problem (in my view) is that Kolmogorov's axioms applied to standard ZFC set theory are not sufficient to distinguish the concept underlying the probability measure from that of non-probabilistic measures. For example, from a purely mathematical perspective, there is no difference between probability and, say, a unit length, or a unit mass. Of course, conceptually, they are worlds apart. As I mentioned elsewhere in this column, I think the problem is not with Kolmogorov's axioms per se, but with the fact that the set theory to which they apply fails to make such a distinction. So, even though probability theory comes close, it is by itself not sufficient to form an exception to my claim. I believe that one of the consequences of my work is that it leads to better understanding of the fundamental concept of probability at a formal level, quite independently of its implications for quantum mechanics.

    "But it's clear that our philosophical tradition has always treated the given actuality of things as basic, while possibility has been understood mainly as a kind of defective actuality, as what might actually exist but in fact doesn't."

    I completely agree. That there is a difference between actualizability/potentiality/possibility (or whatever else you want to call it) and actuality has been recognized at least since Aristotle. Indeed, even the founders of quantum mechanics understood it, and the development of quantum mechanics fostered at least some efforts to formalize this distinction at least within that context. See for example page 124 and following below, from Heisenberg's "Physics and Philosophy", where he mentions this very distinction and in particular the efforts of von Weizsaecker to formalize it as an extension of classical logic within the context of quantum mechanics:

    http://www.naturalthinker.net/trl/texts/Heisenberg,Werner/Heisenberg,%20Werner%20-%20Physics%20and%20philosophy.pdf

    Nevertheless, as far as I can tell, nobody has seriously attempted to move this distinction *in its full generality* (i.e. so that it applies to any objects, not just those that obey the rules of quantum mechanics or are infinite in nature; also, of course it is always possible that somebody has already done this work and it is collecting dust in some obscure journal somewhere, but I am not aware of such an instance) from the level of philosophical verbiage to that of a formal precise distinction in the foundations of mathematics. I believe that for future generations it will be very difficult to understand how this could have been overlooked for so long, and suspect that the reason for that is that this is one of those extremely rare situations where something is "sitting right in front of your nose", yet you don't see it until it is pointed out by somebody.

    "I think this [presumably, the fact that potentiality in a given context is just taken for granted instead of arising from some more fundamental specifications that separate out possible potentialities from impossible ones] misses something essential about the way possibility works in QM, and it may be that this same limitation applies to the approach you have in progress."

    At first, I did not understand what you meant. After I had a quick look at your paper, I think I am beginning to grasp what you are referring to. If I understood you correctly, I think you have made a very astute observation in the sense that you have put your finger on a problem in the metaphysics of modern fundamental physics that could be easily mistaken for a problem in the metaphysics of quantum theory, but is actually a separate from it, and may not have been sufficiently appreciated as such.

    To answer this, I invite you to take a look at the appendix of my 2012 FQXi entry (pages 10 and 11):

    http://fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/1431

    I present therein a schema for a "metatheory of nature" which I believe will eventually replace the currently fashionable notion of a TOE. The schema provides the bare conceptual "skeleton" on which I intend to hang the different mathematical structures that are found in fundamental physics. For example, I have some concrete ideas about how to derive The SU(2)XU(1) symmetry of electroweak interactions from the fact that the theory occupies the (2,3) box. I have some vaguer notions on how to go about deriving the SU(3) symmetry of strong interactions from the fact that in this schema, QCD occupies the (1,3) box. So, I think that you are right to point out that the interdependence of some very specific mathematical structures in fundamental physics that describe different levels of possible potentialities is a problem to be explained, but I think that I have already taken it into consideration.

    I hope that this will also give an indication of the vastness of the project that I am undertaking. When compared to my 2012 entry, my current entry is much more specific in the sense that it fills in many conceptual details of the assertions I made therein. However, it is actually itself a "Big picture Paper" to be supplemented by a paper that provides all the mathematical details. I am very much proceeding from an extremely broad and general picture to one in which all the details are filled in as I go. The upside of this approach is that I know exactly what I need to do next, i.e. I am not "groping in the dark". The downside is that, until I have a reached a certain level of specificity, it will be very difficult for others to see the "Global Big picture" that I see. Another downside (arguably) is that each additional layer of specificity requires me to learn new things that are not always so easy to assimilate quickly, in order that I can put it all together at that level.

    I started this project several years ago while actually on track in a completely different career direction, and have until recently supported myself while working as a midnight pharmacist. I left my job in January because I wanted to devote myself completely to this, and I like to think that I am close to the stage where others might be able to appreciate the merits the approach. My savings will give me until some time next year to test this hypothesis, although bringing major stages of this project to completion may well take much longer.

    Thank you again for your comments, I will leave some after I had a chance to also read the two older entries to which your paper refers, so that I can obtain a "big picture" of what you are working on.

    Best,

    Armin

    Dear Joe,

    First, a quick correction, my last name is Nikkhah Shirazi, but I understand that it is easy to think the first part is my middle name.

    Second, thank you for sharing your views.

    Best,

    Armin

      Armin -

      I appreciate your clarification on "modal" mathematics and probability theory. I believe you're exactly right that someday "it will be very difficult to understand how this could have been overlooked for so long..." - though I'm not sure that such situations are so extremely rare, at least in philosophy. It seems to me that at bottom, the whole history of our intellectual tradition is about learning how to pay attention to aspects of existence that we all grow up taking for granted. At any rate, my own work is entirely a struggle to make certain things explicit that we all know very well - for example, that physical things are observable. And there's nothing we take more for granted than the possibility of things.

      I happened to see your 2012 essay a few days ago, and I wondered how I could have missed it when it first appeared. It looks very interesting, and the title itself should have grabbed my attention, since I've always been suspicious of "unification" as the key to fundamental physics. And, your Metatheory diagram is a little like one I put up on my wall decades ago, and keep coming back to, despite my feelings of inadequacy in the face of such a task. So I'll respond at more length once I've had a chance to read that essay carefully.

      Thanks - Conrad

      Dear Armin,

      Thank you for not reporting my comment to FQXi.org as being inappropriate and have the Moderator classify it as Obnoxious Spam.

      Gratefully,

      Joe Fisher