[deleted]
Hi Ian,
I'm not exactly sure what "divergence" you're asking about here... Starting from the reasonable premise that pure mathematics is not part of the physical world, then the question isn't when they diverge, so much as when they can be said to be vaguely analogous. The branch of physics that deals with the rough overlap between math and reality is measurement theory (which tells one how to map physical events onto mathematical structures and vice-versa). And of course there are an infinite number of (presumably incorrect) measurement theories where the math diverges from the physical reality.
But still, I think I have a rough idea of what you're asking... so consider these two examples which might help clarify the issues you raise:
1) When you solve the (time-independent) Schrodinger equation for the Hydrogen atom, you get a continuum of solutions that just happen to mostly be unnormalizable. It's the measurement theory -- which demands normalization to make physical sense of the solution -- that effectively "eliminates" most of these solutions on grounds that they're not physical. So without this "divergence" between math and reality, it's not even obvious that quantization would emerge in the first place. (One can run across many examples of how physical reasoning impacts the "allowable" mathematical solution space in just about any field of physics.)
2) In quantum measurement theory, one does not map the mathematical wavefunction directly onto physical reality, but rather the "probability" of various real outcomes. Still, once the measurement is made, the probability of the actual outcome jumps to 100%, meaning that it is perfectly acceptable for a (mathematical) superposition to get mapped to one particular physical outcome. But quantum measurement theory also governs state preparation -- via a non-probabilistic rule. Here the particular physical outcome is always mapped onto a mathematical pure state, never a superposition between that state and others. So the map between physics and math is now asymmetric; one uses one set of rules when going from reality->math, and another set of rules when one goes from math->reality. If this asymmetry is real, then the premise of a 11 equivalence map between math and physics is demonstrably false. (For the record, I'd rather keep the math/physics map, and symmetrize quantum measurement theory...)
Ken